PEBC Pharmacology Question Papers

1 – Introduction to Pharmacology: Basic Principles
1) Which of the following is NOT part of the etymology of the word
pharmacology?
a) Medicine
b) Drug
c) Herb
d) Poison
e) Study
2.1) Which of the following describes an agonist?
a) Any substance that brings about a change in biologic function through
itschemical action
b) A specific regulatory molecule in the biologic system where a drug interacts
c) A drug that binds to a receptor and stimulates cellular activity
d) A drug that binds to a receptor and inhibits or opposes cellular activity
e) A drug directed at parasites infecting the patient
2.2) Xenobiotics are considered:
a) Endogenous
b) Exogenous
c) Inorganic poisons
d) Toxinse) Ligands
2.3) Which of the following would be a toxin (poison of biological origin)?
a) Pb
b) As
c) Hg
d) Atropine
2.4) The vast majority of drugs have molecular weights (MW) between 100 and
1,000.Large drugs, such as alteplase (t-PA), must be administered:
a) Into the compartment where they have their effect
b) Orally so they do not absorb too quickly
c) Rectally to prevent irritation to the stomach lining and vessels
d) Via the intraosseous (IO) route
e) Titrated with buffering agents to prevents cell lysis
2.5) Which of the following occurs with drugs that are extremely small, such as
Lithium?
a) Receptor mediated endocytosis
b) Minor drug movement within the body
c) Vasodilation when injected intravenously (IV)
d) Specific receptor binding
e) Nonspecific binding
2.6) Drugs fit receptors using the lock and key model. Covalent bonds are the ____
and the ____ specific.
a) Strongest; Most
b) Strongest; Least
c) Weakest; Most
d) Weakest; Least
Pharmacology – Part 1 14Mar2009 DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 2 –
2.7) Warfarin (Coumadin) is given as a racemic mixture with the S enantiomer
being four times more active than the R enantiomer. If the mixture of Warfarin
given is 50% S and 50% R, what is the potency compared with a 100% R
enantiomer solution?
a) 4 * R + 1 * S = 1
b) 4 * R + 1 * S = 1.5
c) 4 * R + 1 * S = 2
d) 4 * R + 1 * S = 2.5
e) 4 * R + 1 * S = 4
2.8) What determines the degree of movement of a drug between body
compartments?
a) Partition constant
b) Degree of ionization
c) pH
d) Size
e) All of the above
3.1) Which of the following is NOT a protein target for drug binding?
a) Side of action (transport)
b) Enzymes
c) Carrier molecules
d) Receptors
e) Ion channels
3.2) Which of the following is an example of a drug acting directly through
receptors?
a) Protamine binds stoichiometrically to heparin anticoagulants
b) Adrenergic beta blockers for thyroid hormone-induced tachycardia
c) Epinephrine for increasing heart rate and blood pressure
d) Cancer chemotherapeutic agents
e) Mannitol for subarachnoid hemmorhage
4.1) What is added with drug subclassification, such as an antitubercular drug
versus anantibacterial drug?
a) Cost
b) Size
c) Ionization
d) Precision
e) Speed
4.2) What type of drug is propranolol (Inderal)?
a) Anticonvulsive
b) Antihypertensive
c) Antinauseant
d) Antihistamine
e) Antipyretic
5.1) Which of the following is considered the brand name?
a) Propranolol
b) Inderal
c) Adrenergic ß-blocker
d) “off label” use
e) Blocks ß-receptors in heart myocardium
5.2) Which of the following is considered the class?
Pharmacology – Part 1 14Mar2009 DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 3 –
a) Propranolol
b) Inderal
c) Adrenergic ß-blocker
d) “off label” use
e) Blocks ß-receptors in heart myocardium
5.3) Which of the following cases would be contraindicated for propranolol
(Inderal)?
a) Hypertension
b) Essential tremor
c) Angina
d) Tachycardia
e) Asthma
5.4) Which of the following adverse effects (side-effects) is NOT commonly seen
with cholinergic antagonists?
a) Blurred vision
b) Confusion
c) Miosis
d) Constipation
e) Urinary retention
6.1) The drug chloramphenicol (Chloromycetin) is risky for which of the
following?
a) Neonates
b) Geriatric patients
c) Adult males
d) Obese patients
e) Congestive heart failure patients
6.2) How does the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) change after the age of 40?
a) Increase 1% each year
b) Increases 2% each year
c) Decreases 1% each year
d) Decreases 2% each year
e) Does not depend on age
6.3) A decrease in renal and liver function, as seen in the elderly, would prolong
drughalf-life, ____ plasma protein binding, and ____ volume of distribution.
a) Increase; Increase b) Decrease; Decrease c) Increase; Decrease d) Decrease;
Increase
6.4) When prescribing isoniazid (Rimifon), pharmacogenetics must be considered
as>90% of Asians and certain other groups are ____ acetylators, and thus have a
____ blood concentration of a given dose and a decreased risk of toxicity. a) Slow;
Increased b) Slow; Decreased c) Fast; Increased d) Fast; Decrease
6.5) Which of the following are the two modifying factors that contribute to why
women have higher blood peak concentrations of alcohol than men when
consuming equivalentamounts?
a) Lower blood volume & increased hormones b) Lower fat content & more
gastric alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH) c) Higher fat content & more gastric
alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH) d) Lower fat content & less gastric alcohol
dehydrogenase (ADH) e) Higher fat content & less gastric alcohol dehydrogenase
(ADH)
2 – Pharmacokinetic Principles: Drug Movement
1) Pharmacokinetics is the effect of the ____ and pharmacodynamics is the effect
of the ____. a) Drug on a drug; Body on the drug b) Body on the drug; Drug on a
drug c) Drug on the body; Body on the drug d) Body on the drug; Drug on the
body e) Drug on a drug; Drug on a drug
2.1) Which of the following is NOT an action of the body on a drug?
a) Absorption b) Distribution c) Metabolism d) Excretion e) Side effects
3) If a drug is 80% bound to blood elements or plasma proteins, what part is
consideredthe free form? a) 20% b) 40% c) 50% d) 80% e) 100%
4.1) Which of the following describes minimal effective concentration (MEC)?
a) The minimal drug plasma concentration that can be detected b) The minimal
drug plasma concentration to enter tissues c) The minimal drug plasma
concentration to interact with receptors d) The minimal drug plasma
concentration to produce effect e) The minimal drug plasma concentration to
reach therapeutic levels
4.2) If a patient misses three doses of their daily drug, which of the following (in
general) is the best solution? a) Take a 4x dose at the next dose time b) Wait 3
more days (week total) then return to normal regimen c) Do nothing and continue
normal regimen d) Setup an appointment to have the patient evaluated
e) Prescribe a higher dosage pill so missed doses will have less effect
4.3) Blood levels of a drug correlate to the effectiveness of that drug, such as with
pentazocine (Talwin) or phenobarbitol (Luminal). a) True b) False
5.1) Which of the following drug permeation mechanisms involves polar
substances toolarge to enter cells by other means, such as iron or vitamin B12?
a) Aqueous diffusion b) Lipid diffusion c) Carrier molecules d) Endocytosis and
exocytosis
5.2) Which of the following drug permeation mechanisms occurs across epithelial
tight junctions and is driven by a concentration gradient? a) Aqueous diffusion
b) Lipid diffusion c) Carrier molecules d) Endocytosis and exocytosis
5.3) Which of the following drug permeation mechanisms uses the Henderson-
Hasselbalch equation for the ratio of solubility for the weak acid or weak base?
a) Aqueous diffusion b) Lipid diffusion c) Carrier molecules d) Endocytosis
and exocytosis
5.4) Which of the following drug permeation mechanisms is used for peptides,
aminoacids, glucose, and other large or insoluble molecules? a) Aqueous diffusion
b) Lipid diffusion c) Carrier molecules d) Endocytosis and exocytosis
5.5) Which of the following drug permeation mechanisms uses caveolae?
a) Aqueous diffusion b) Lipid diffusion c) Carrier molecules d) Endocytosis and
exocytosis
6.1) Using the Fick Law of Diffusion, how will flux change if membrane thickness
isdoubled? a) It will double b) It will quadruplec) It will halve d) It will quarter
e) It will not change
6.2) Using the Fick Law of Diffusion, how will flux change if the permeability
coefficient is quadrupled? a) It will double b) It will quadruple c) It will halve
d) It will quarter e) It will not change
7.1) Which of the following is the amount of a drug absorbed per the amount
administered? a) Bioavailability b) Bioequivalence c) Drug absorption
d) Bioinequivalence e) Dosage
7.2) Which of the following is NOT needed for drug bioequivalence?a) Same
active ingredients b) Same strength or concentrationc) Same dosage formd) Same
route of administratione) Same side effects7.3) For intravenous (IV) dosages, what
is the bioavailability assumed to be?a) 0% b) 25%c) 50%d) 75%e) 100%7.4)
Although morphine (Avinza, Oramorph SR, MS Contin) is well-absorbed
whenadministered orally (PO), how much of the drug is metabolized on its first
pass throughthe liver?a) 90% b) 70%c) 50%d) 30%e) 10%7.5) For a generic drug
to be bioequivalent to an innovator drug (per FDA), it must bemeasured in ____ of
subjects to fall within ____ of the mean of the test population bioavailability.a) 50;
50 b) 80; 20c) 20; 80d) 95; 5e) 5; 957.6) Using the FDA bioequivalence rule, how
much variation could a generic drug potentially have from an innovator and still be
considered equivalent?a) 100% b) 20%c) 40%d) 60%e) 80%8.1) Which of the
following is NOT a pharmacokinetic process?a) Alteration of the drug by liver
enzymes b) Drug metabolites are removed in the urinec) Movement of drug from
the gut into general circulationd) The drug causes dilation of coronary vesselse)
The drug is readily deposited in fat tissue8.2) Which of the following can produce
a therapeutic response? A drug that is:a) Bound to plasma albumin b) Concentrated
in the bile
Pharmacology – Part 1 14Mar2009DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 7 -c) Concentrated in
the urined) Not absorbed from the GI tracte) Unbound to plasma proteins8.3)
Which of the following most correctly describes steroid hormones with respect
totheir ability to gain access to intracellular binding sites?a) They cross the cell
membrane via aqueous pores b) They have a high permeability coefficientc) They
are passively transported via membrane carriersd) They require vesicular
transporte) Their transport requires the hydrolysis of ATP
3 – Pharmacokinetic Principles: pH and Drug Movement
1) Most drugs are either ____ acids or ____ bases.a) Strong; Strong b) Strong;
Weak c) Weak; Weak d) Weak; Strong2.1) Aspirin readily donates a proton in
aqueous solutions and pyrimethamine readilyaccepts a proton in aqueous solution.
Thus, aspirin is a(b) ____ and pyrimethamine isa(n) ____.a) Acid; Base b) Base;
Acidc) Acid; Acidd) Base; Base2.2) Given the equilibrium HA <=> A- + H+ (acid)
and BH+ <=> B + H+ (base), in anacid environment (low pH) the acid reaction
will move to the ____ and the base reactionwill move to the ____.a) Right; Left b)
Right; Rightc) Left; Rightd) Left; Left3.1) What form of a drug is more lipid-
soluble, and thus would remain trapped within acompartment where the pH does
not favor the lipid-soluble form?a) Strong acid (A-) b) Weak acid (A-)c) Neutral
(AH and B)d) Weak base (BH+)e) Strong base (BH+)3.2) The lipid-soluble form
of a base is ____ and the lipid-soluble form of an acid is ____.a) Protonated;
Protonated b) Protonated; Unprotonatedc) Unprotonated; Unprotonatedd)
Unprotonated; Protonated
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Pharmacology – Part 1 14Mar2009DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 8 -4.1) If the pKa of
Aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) is 3.5 and the pH of the stomach is 2.5,how much
Aspirin is in the protonated species in the stomach and is this the amountavailable
for absorption?a)
!
91%; Yes b)
!
91%; Noc)
!
9%; Yesd)
!
9%; No4.2) What percentage of Aspirin would be ionized in the blood
compartment (pH = 7.4)assuming pH is 7.5 and Aspirin pKa is 3.5?a) (10,000 - 1) /
1 = 99.99% b) (100 - 1) / 1 = 99%c) Noned) 1 / (100 - 1) = 0.9%e) 1 / (10,000 - 1)
= 0.009%4.3) If the pH - pKa = -1, what percentage of weak base is nonionized?a)
99 b) 90c) 50d) 10e) 14.4) If the pH - pka = 2, what percentage of weak acid is
nonionized?a) 99 b) 90c) 50d) 10e) 14.5) If pH > pKa, the drug is ____ and if pH <
pKa, the drug is ____. An unprotonatedacid is ____ and a protonated base is
____.a) Protonated; Unprotonated; Charged; Charged b) Protonated;
Unprotonated; Neutral; Neutralc) Unprotonated; Protonated; Charged; Chargedd)
Unprotonated; Protonated; Neutral; Chargede) Unprotonated; Protonated; Charged;
Neutral5.1) Weak acids are excreted faster in ____ urine and weak bases are
excreted faster in ____ urine.a) Acidic; Alkaline b) Alkaline; Acidicc) Acidic;
Neutrald) Neutral; Alkalinee) Alkaline; Neutral5.2) A patient presents with an
overdose of acidic Aspirin. The drug ____ can be given to ____ the pH of the urine
and trap the Aspirin, preventing further metabolism.a) NaHCO3; Increase b)
NaHCO3; Decreasec) NH4Cl; Increased) NH4Cl; Decrease
Pharmacology – Part 1 14Mar2009DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 9 -5.3) A patient
presents with an overdose of alkaline Codeine. The drug ____ can be givento ____
the pH of the urine and trap the Codeine, preventing further metabolism.a)
NaHCO3; Increase b) NaHCO3; Decreasec) NH4Cl; Increased) NH4Cl;
Decrease6.1) The principle of drug manipulation for excretion of a drug out of the
renal tubule can be accomplished by:a) Acidifying the urinary pH b) Adjusting the
urinary pH to protonate weakly acidic drugsc) Adjusting the urinary pH to
unprotonate weakly basic drugsd) Adjusting the urinary pH to ionize the druge) By
neutralizing the urinary pH6.2) Aspirin is a weak organic acid with a pKa of 3.5.
What percentage of a given dosewill be in the lipid-soluble form at a stomach pH
of 1.5?a) About 1% b) About 10%c) About 50%d) About 90%e) About 99%6.3)
For which of the following drugs is excretion most significantly accelerated
byacidification of the urine?a) Weak acid with pKa of 5.5 b) Weak acid with pKa
of 3.5c) Weak base with pKa of 7.5d) Weak base with pKa of 7.16.4) A patient
diagnosed with type 2 diabetes is administered an oral dose of 0.1
mgchloropropamide, an insulin secretagogue and weak acid with a pKa of 5.0.
What is theamount of this drug that could be absorbed from the stomach at pH
2.0?a) 99.9
"
g b) 90
"
gc) 50
"
gd) 0.05 mge) 0.01 mg
4 – Pharmacokinetic Principles: Absorption
1) Bioavailability (F) is the fraction or percentage of administered drug that
reaches thesystemic circulation via a given route as compared to what route?a)
Oral b) IV (intravenous)c) IO (intraosseous)d) CSF (cerebrospinal fluid)e)
Whatever route attains the target drug concentration in plasma (CT)2) What organ
is responsible for metabolism in the “first pass effect”?a) Brain b) Heart
Pharmacology – Part 1 14Mar2009DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 10 -c) Kidneyd)
Liver e) Spleen3.1) A patient is in the hospital and is stable on digoxin 0.175 mg
IV qd (daily). Howmuch digoxin in mg. would you need to give your patient
orally, given that the bioavailability for oral digoxin tablets is 0.7?a) (0.175 * 0.7) /
(1.0) = 0.1225 mg b) (0.175 * 1) / (0.7) = 0.25 mgc) (0.175 + 0.7) / (1.0) = 0.875
mgd) (0.175 + 1) / (0.7) = 1.67 mge) No change is necessary3.2) Given a graph of
plasma drug concentration versus time, what part of the graphwould be used to
calculate bioavailability for a PO (oral) drug administration?a) Maximum
concentration b) Steady concentrationc) Derivative of the curve (slope)d) Integral
of the curve (area underneath)e) The curve is not used to calculate
bioavailability4.1) Which of the following routes of administration has a
bioavailability of about 80-100%, is usually very slow absorbing, and has
prolonged duration of action?a) IV (intravenous) b) IM (intramuscular)c) SQ
(subcutaneous)d) Rectale) Transdermal4.2) Which of the following routers of
administration is the most convenient, althoughmay have a bioavailability
anywhere from 5-100%?a) PO (oral) b) IV (intravenous)c) IM (intramuscular)d)
SQ (subcutaneous)e) Transdermal4.3) Which of the following enteral
administration routes has the largest first-pass effect?a) SL (sublingual) b)
Buccalc) Rectald) Oral4.4) Epithelial cells are connected by ____, which are tough
to cross and materials oftenmust pass through the cells. Endothelial cells of blood
vessels are connected by ____,which proteins cannot cross but smaller drugs (MW
200-500) can.a) Macular gap junctions; Tight junctions b) Tight junctions; Macular
gap junctionsc) Adherens junctions; Tight junctionsd) Tight junctions; Adherens
junctionse) Macular gap junctions; Adherens junctions
Pharmacology – Part 1 14Mar2009DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 11 -4.5) Which of the
following administration routes is not often used, is painful, and has arisk of
infection and adhesion?a) EPI (epidural) b) IA (intraarterial)c) IP
(intraperitoneal)d) IV (intravenous)e) IO (intraosseous)4.6) Which of the following
is NOT an advantage of prolonged release medications?a) Less frequent
administration b) Therapeutic effect overnightc) Lower incidence of side effectsd)
Patient compliancee) More fluctuation in plasma concentration4.7) What is the
common location for the scopolamine motion sickness transdermal patch?a) Side
of the hip b) Chestc) Over the deltoid muscled) Behind the ear e) On the back of
the neck
5 – Pharmacokinetic Distribution: Basics
1.1) Which of the following would receive drug slowly?a) Liver b) Brainc) Fatd)
Musclee) Kidney1.2) Which of the following is the least important for passage
through capillary walls butthe most important for passage through the cell wall?a)
Molecular size b) Lipid solubilityc) Diffusion constantd) pHe) pKa1.3) Which of
the following is the most important for movement through capillary walls?a)
Molecular size b) Lipid solubilityc) Diffusion constantd) pHe) pKa1.4) Which of
the following locations would most trap a lipid soluble drug?a) Blood b)
Intestinesc) Braind) Stomach
Pharmacology – Part 1 14Mar2009DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 12 -1.5) What type of
drugs can cross the blood-brain barrier (BBB)?a) Large and lipid-soluble b) Large
and lipid-insolublec) Small and lipid-solubled) Small and lipid-insoluble2.1)
Acidic drugs, such as phenytoin, bind primarily to which of the following plasma
proteins?a)
!
1-fetoprotein (AFP) b) GC Globulinc) Albumind)
!
1-acid glycoprotein (AAG)e) Transcortin2.2) Basic drugs, such as lidocaine, bind
primarily to which of the following plasma proteins?a)
!
1-fetoprotein (AFP) b) Gc-Globulin (GcG)c) Albumind)
!
1-acid glycoprotein (AAG)e) Transcortin3.1) A decrease in drug-protein binding
will lead to which of the following?a) Decrease in the unbound drug concentration
b) Increase in free drugc) Increase in rate of drug eliminationd) Decrease in
volume of distribution3.2) A patient presents with acute-onset cirrhosis of the liver.
They are found to havehypoalbuminemia. In severe cirrhosis it is expected that
AAG will be decreased, but the patient presents with increased AAG due to the
inflammatory response. Which of thefollowing is the most likely?a) Increased
acidic drug binding and increased basic drug binding b) Increased acidic drug
binding and decreased basic drug bindingc) Decreased acidic drug binding and
increased basic drug bindingd) Decreased acidic drug binding and decreased basic
drug binding3.3) Which of the following is NOT a site of loss (where drug is not
used)?a) Fat b) GI tractc) Muscled) Site lacking receptors4.1) Which of the
following locations can accumulate lipid-soluble drugs, has little or noreceptors,
and can hold distributed drugs like barbiturates?a) Liver b) Kidneyc) Braind) Fate)
Fetus4.2) Which of the following locations has high blood flow and is a site of
excretion?a) Liver
Pharmacology – Part 1 14Mar2009DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 13 - b) Kidneyc)
Braind) Fate) Fetus4.3) Anything affecting renal perfusion will affect drug delivery
to the kidney, drugexcretion, and drug levels in the blood.a) True b) False4.4)
Which of the following can be treated with drugs due to a leaky area in the blood-
brain barrier near the medulla?a) Seizures b) Shiversc) Diarrhead) Nauseae)
Vomitting4.5) What is the approximate lag time for equilibration between maternal
blood and fetaltissues?a) 20 mins b) 40 minsc) 1 hour d) 2 hourse) 6 hours
Match the body compartment with the volume, assuming a 70kg male patient:
5.1) Total body a) 45.2) Plasma b) 105.3) Interstitial c) 145.4) Extracellular d)
285.5) Intracellular e) 425.6) If protein plasma binding is decreased, how will
volume of distribution be affected?a) Increased b) Decreasedc) Not changed5.7)
400 mg of a drug is administered to a patient and the drug is later measured in
plasma to be 1
"
g/ml. What is the apparent volume of distribution (Vd)?a) 0.04 L b) 0.4 Lc) 4 Ld)
40 Le) 400 L5.8) Elderly patients often have ____ muscle mass and thus a(n) ____
Vd.a) More; Increased b) More; Decreasedc) Less; Increasedd) Less;
Decreased5.9) Patients with ascites or edema would have ____ Vd for hydrophilic
drugs, such asgentamicin.
Pharmacology – Part 1 14Mar2009DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 14 -a) Increased b)
Decreasedc) Unchanged
6 – Pharmacokinetics: Drug Metabolism
1.1) Which of the following locations is the most likely for finding a free,
unaltered drug?a) Urine b) Fecesc) Breast milk d) Fate) Sweat1.2) Most drugs are
active in their ____ form and inactive in their ____ form.a) Non-polar; Polar b)
Polar; Non-polar c) Water-soluble; Lipid-solubled) Lipid-insoluble; Water-
insolublee) Neutral; Neutral2.1) Drug biotransformation phase I makes drugs ____
polar for metabolism and phase IImakes drugs ____ polar for excretion.a) More;
More b) More; Lessc) Less; Mored) Less; Less2.2) Which of the following is NOT
a phase II substrate?a) Glucuronic acid b) Sulfuric acidc) Acetic acidd) Amino
acidse) Alcohol3) Which of the following reactions is phase II and NOT phase I?a)
Oxidations b) Reductionsc) Conjugationsd) Deaminationse) Hydrolyses4) Which
of the following metabolically active tissues is the principle organ for
drugmetabolism?a) Skin b) Kidneysc) Lungsd) Liver e) GI Tract5.1) Damage at
which of the following locations would most affect the goals of phase II
biotransformation?a) Skin b) Kidneys
Pharmacology – Part 1 14Mar2009DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 15 -c) Lungsd) Liver
e) GI Tract
Match the biotransformation reaction with the drug:
5.2) Hydroxylation of aromatic ring to increase polarity a) Codeine5.3) N-
dealkylation b) Morphine5.4) Sulfoxidation c) Thioridazine5.5) O-dealkylation d)
Nicotine5.6) N-oxidation e) Phenobarbitol5.7) Side chain oxidation with -OH to
increase polarity f) Pentobarbitol5.8) Conversion to glutathione and reactive
intermediate g) Acetaminophen6.1) What is the goal of the P450 system
(microsomes pinched off from endoplasmicreticulum)?a) Metabolism of
substances b) Detoxification of substancesc) Increasing pH of compartments
containing substancesd) Decreasing pH of compartments containing substancese)
A & B6.2) Regarding the microsomal drug metabolizing system, a patient with late
stagealcoholism and liver damage would have more ETOH available due to which
of thefollowing concepts?a) Increased induction b) Decreased inductionc)
Increased inhibitiond) Decreased inhibition6.3) Regarding the microsomal drug
metabolizing system, a patient who is a chronic user of barbiturates would need
more drug to produce the same effects due to which of thefollowing concepts?a)
Increased induction b) Decreased inductionc) Increased inhibitiond) Decreased
inhibition6.4) Which of the following are the drugs that induce CYP 1A2 and the
drugs that havetheir metabolism induced by 1A2?a) Carbamazepine &
phenobarbitol; Theophyline & warfarin b) Phenobarbitol & phenytoin ; Phenytoin
& warfarinc) Carbamazepine & phenytoin; Warfarind) Carbamazepine;
Cyclosporine6.5) Which of the following are the drugs that inhibit CYP 1A2 and
the drugs that havetheir metabolism inhibited by 1A2?a) SSRIs; Phenytoin &
warfarin b) Amiodarone & cimetidine; Phenytoin & warfarinc) Cimetidine,
erythromycin, & grapefruit juice; Theophyline & warfarind) Cimetidine &
erythromycin; Cyclosporine6.6) Which of the following groups of people is the
least likely to have biotransformationeffects due to altered hepatic function?
Pharmacology – Part 1 14Mar2009DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 16 -a) Infants b)
Adultsc) Elderlyd) Chronic alcoholicse) Acetaminophen overdoses6.7) In what
location does amino acid conjugation of glycine (e.g. salicyclic acid) take place?a)
Microsomal b) Cytosolc) Mitochondria6.8) Where does acetylation conjugation
(e.g. isoniazid) and sulfate conjugation (e.g.acetaminophen) take place?a)
Microsomal b) Cytosolc) Mitochondria6.9) Where does glucuronide conjucation
(e.g. digoxin, bilirubin) take place?a) Microsomal b) Cytosolc) Mitochondria6.10)
What is a result of conjugation of isoniazid via N-acetylation?a) Detoxification of
liver b) Detoxification of kidneysc) Detoxification of bloodd) Detoxification of
urinee) Hepatotoxicity
7 – Pharmacokinetics: Principles of Eliminations
1.1) One liter contains 1,000 mg of a drug. After one hour, 900 mg of the drug
remains.What is the clearance?a) 100 mL b) 100 mL/hr c) 1 mg/mld) 100 mge) 1
mg/sec1.2) To maintain a drug concentration at steady state, the dosing rate should
equal theelimination rate. Which of the following is true? (CL = Drug Clearance)a)
Dosing rate = CL + target concentration b) Dosing rate = CL - target
concentrationc) Dosing rate = CL * target concentrationd) Dosing rate = CL /
target concentration1.3) Which of the following is most useful in determining the
rate of elimination of adrug, in general?a) Drug concentration in urine (renal
elimination) b) Drug concentration in stool (bilary elimination)c) Drug
concentration in bloodd) Drug concentration in brain
Pharmacology – Part 1 14Mar2009DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 17 -e) Drug oxidation
rate2.1) For first-order drug elimination, half-life t(1/2) is ____ at two places on
the curveand a constant ____ is lost per unit time.a) Equal; Amount b) Equal;
Percentagec) Not equal; Amountd) Not equal; Percentage2.2) For first-order drug
elimination, given the half-life equation of t(1/2) = (0.693 * Vd)/ CL, how many
half-lives would be necessary to reach steady state (
!
95%) without aloading dose?a) 1 to 2 b) 2 to 3c) 3 to 4d) 4 to 5e) 5 to 62.3) Which
of the following is NOT a drug exhibiting zero-order elimination kinetics?a)
Aspirin b) Morphinec) Phenytoind) ETOH2.4) For zero-order drug elimination,
half-life t(1/2) is ____ at two places on the curveand a constant ____ is lost per
unit time.a) Equal; Amount b) Equal; Percentagec) Not equal; Amountd) Not
equal; Percentage2.5) If a drug with a 2-hour half life is given with an initial dose
of 8 mcg/ml, assumingfirst-order kinetics, how much drug will be left at 6 hours?a)
8 mcg/ml b) 4 mcg/mlc) 2 mcg/mld) 1 mcg/mle) 0.5 mcg/ml3.1) What are the units
for steady-state concentration (Css), or infusion rate over clearance?a) mg/min b)
ml/minc) mg/mld) ml/mge) min/mg3.2) What percentage of the steady-state drug
concentration is achieved at 3.3 * t(1/2)?a) 10% b) 25%c) 50%d) 75%e) 90%
Pharmacology – Part 1 14Mar2009DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 18 -4.1) Increasing
the rate of infusion changes the time necessary to reach the steady-
stateconcentration.a) True b) False4.2) An injection of two units of a drug once-
daily (qd) will yield the same steady-stateconcentration as an injection of one unit
of a drug twice-daily (bid).a) True b) False5.1) Which of the following drugs
would most likely need a loading dose to help reachtherapeutic levels?a)
Acetaminophen, t(1/2) = 2 h b) Aspirin, t(1/2) = 15 mc) Tetracycline, t(1/2) = 11
hd) Digitoxin, t(1/2) = 161 he) Adenosine, t(1/2) = 10 s5.2) A target concentration
of 7.5 mg/L of theophylline is required for a 60 kg patient.What is the loading
dose, given the following: Vd = 0.5 L/kg, Cl = 0.04 L/kg/hr, t(1/2) =9.3 hr?a) 0.5
L/kg * 60 kg * 7.5 mg/L = 225 mg/h, infusion b) 0.5 L/kg * 60 kg * 7.5 mg/L =
225 mg, bolusc) 0.04 L/kg/hr * 60 kg * 7.5 mg/L = 18 mg/h, infusiond) 0.04
L/kg/hr * 60 kg * 7.5 mg/L = 18 mg, bolus5.3) A target concentration of 7.5 mg/L
of theophylline is required for a 60 kg patient.What is the steady state maintenance
dose, given the following: Vd = 0.5 L/kg, Cl = 0.04L/kg/hr, t(1/2) = 9.3 hr?a) 0.5
L/kg * 60 kg * 7.5 mg/L = 225 mg/h, infusion b) 0.5 L/kg * 60 kg * 7.5 mg/L =
225 mg, bolusc) 0.04 L/kg/hr * 60 kg * 7.5 mg/L = 18 mg/h, infusiond) 0.04
L/kg/hr * 60 kg * 7.5 mg/L = 18 mg, bolus
8 – Drug Evaluation and Regulation
1) Which of the following is NOT an approach to drug development?a) Chemical
modification of a known molecule b) Random screening for biologic activity (e.g.
natural products)c) Rational drug designd) Combination of known drugs (e.g.
Tylenol with codeine)e) Biotechnology and cloning2.1) Drug screening for an anti-
infectious agent would study the drug against a variety of infectious organisms
(____) and against non-infectious assays (____).a) Power; Specificity b)
Sensitivity; Side-effectsc) Activity; Selectivityd) Selectivity; Activitye)
Specificity; Power 2.2) Which of the following components of a pharmacologic
profile involves assessing pharmacologic activity and comparing against known
compounds?
Pharmacology – Part 1 14Mar2009DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 19 -a) Mechanism of
action b) Receptor binding assaysc) Activity of CYP 450d) In vitro & in vivo
testse) Tolerance, physical dependence, toxicity
Match the definition with the term: a) LD50 b) ED50 c) T.I. d) NED
3.1) The amount of drug that produces a therapeutic response in half of the test
group3.2) Comparison of the amount of a therapeutic agent that causes the
therapeutic effect tothe amount that causes toxic effects3.3) The dose that kills half
of the test group3.4) The maximum dose where toxicity is not observed3.5)
Subacute toxicity testing involves multiple doses over what time frame?a) 1 week
b) 1 monthc) 6 monthsd) 1 year e) 2 years3.6) For the human clinical trials, what
initial doses are used?a) 1 – 2 NED b) 1/2 – 1 NEDc) 1/10 – 1 NEDd) 1/100 – 1/10
NEDe) 1/100 – 1/100 NED3.7) What is the minimal number of species tested
(pregnant females) at selectedorganogenesis periods for teratogenesis? (e.g.
Thalidomide, ethanol, Accutane, warfarin)a) 1 b) 2c) 3d) 4e) 53.8) In the
mutagenesis dominant lethal test, which of the following would be exposed tothe
test substance?a) Pre-mating male b) Pre-mating femalec) Post-mating maled)
Post-mating female (pregnant)e) Newborn3.9) Which of the following teratogens
is associated with absence of extremities?a) Syphilis b) Rubellac) Thalidomided)
Lithiume) Lead3.10) Which of the following is least likely to be involved in
carcinogenesis?a) Ethanol b) Vinyl chloride
Pharmacology – Part 1 14Mar2009DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 20 -c) Urethaned)
Benzo[
!
]pyrene4.1) What type of study for an Investigational New Drug (IND) involves
neither theinvestigators or subjects knowing if the drug or placebo is being
given?a) Single-blind study b) Double-blind studyc) Placebod) Positive-controle)
Crossover study4.2) What type of study for an IND involves each subject receiving
all treatmentconditions?a) Single-blind study b) Double-blind studyc) Placebo
(negative-control)d) Positive-controle) Crossover study4.3) What type of study for
an IND involves comparison with a placebo and another previously tested drug?a)
Single-blind study b) Double-blind studyc) Placebo (negative-control)d) Positive-
controle) Crossover study4.4) What clinical trial phase involves many patients and
often a double-blind study withthe purpose to further explore the beneficial action
of the drug and toxicities?a) Phase 1 b) Phase 2c) Phase 3d) Phase 44.5) What
clinical trial phase involves single- or double-blind studies under verycontrolled
conditions with the purpose to determine therapeutic effect at tolerated doses?a)
Phase 1 b) Phase 2c) Phase 3d) Phase 44.6) What clinical trial phase involves
submitting a New Drug Application (NDA),monitoring, and reporting by clinicians
using the drug?a) Phase 1 b) Phase 2c) Phase 3d) Phase 44.7) What clinical trial
phase involves small does up to profound physiologic responses,or up to minor
toxicity (pharmacokinetics)?a) Phase 1 b) Phase 2c) Phase 3
Pharmacology – Part 1 14Mar2009DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 21 -d) Phase 45.1)
The Orphan Drug Amendment (1983) gives incentives for the development of
orphan drugs, which treat diseases that affect less than how many patients?a) 2,000
b) 20,000c) 200,000d) 2,000,000e) 20,000,0005.2) Which of the following would
NOT be a critique of the Prescription Drug User FeeAct (PDUFA, 1992)?a)
Obligates FDA to satisfy drug industry b) Reduces FDA independencec) Reduces
FDA critical evaluationd) Reduces drug approval process timee) Reduces
congressional oversight5.3) Which of the following drug safety categories for
pregnancy is the highest risk,where studies have shown a significant risk to women
and to the fetus?a) A b) Bc) Cd) De) X
9 – Pharmacodynamics: Receptor Theory and Dose Response
1.1) Which of the following occurs on the extracellular domain of the lipid bilayer
andnot the cytoplasmic domain, with regard to drug action?a) Ligand binding b)
Coupling with membrane associated moleculesc) Traffickingd) Signaling1.2)
Which of the following drug targets involves inhibitors, false substrates, and a pro-
drug type?a) Receptors b) Ion channelsc) Enzymesd) Carriers1.3) What is the
correct order of bond strength, from strongest to weakest?a) Van der Waals >
Hydrogen > Ionic > Covalent b) Ionic > Covalent > Hydrogen > Van der Waalsc)
Covalent > Hydrogen > Ionic > Van der Waalsd) Covalent > Ionic > Hydrogen >
Van der Waalse) Van der Waals > Hydrogen > Covalent > Ionic2) On a graded
dose-response curve (or drug-receptor curve in a laboratory), at what point does
response increase the most rapidly?a) Initially b) At EC50
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Pharmacology – Part 1 14Mar2009DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 22 -c) At LD50d) At
90% maximal response efficacy (Emax)e) At steady-state3.1) Which of the
following is the equilibrium dissociation constant, where theconcentration of free
drug is at half-maximal binding?a) EC50 b) Emaxc) Kdd) Bmaxe) LD503.2) What
kind of graph scaling is often used to compare EC50 to Kd?a) Linear b)
Exponentialc) Semilogd) Inversee) Proportional3.3) Clinical effectiveness of a
drug depends on its potency.a) True b) False
Use the accompanied diagram for the following two questions:
3.4) Which of the following drugs would require the most care when
administrating, if the upper portion of the dose-response curve signified severe
toxicity?a) A b) Bc) Cd) D3.5) Which drug is the least efficacious?a) A b) Bc) Cd)
D3.6) Intrinsic activity is a drug’s ability to elicit:a) Strong receptor binding b)
Weak receptor bindingc) Responsed) Excretione) Distribution4.1) Which direction
would a partial agonist shift the dose-response curve whencompared to a full
agonist?a) To the left b) To the rightc) Downd) Upe) To the right and possibly
down4.2) Which direction would a competitive antagonist (plus agonist) shift the
dose-response curve when compared to a full agonist?
Pharmacology – Part 1 14Mar2009DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 23 -a) To the left b)
To the rightc) Downd) Upe) To the right and possibly down4.3) Which direction
would a non-competitive antagonist (plus agonist) shift the dose-response curve
when compared to a full agonist?a) To the left b) To the rightc) Downd) Upe)
Down and possibly to the right4.4) A competitive antagonist affects the agonist
____ and a non-competitive antagonistaffect the agonist ____.a) Potency; Efficacy
b) Efficacy; Potencyc) Duration; Speedd) Speed; Duration4.5) In which of the
following cases could a dose-response curve be constructed?a) Prevention of
convulsions b) Prevention of arrhythmiasc) Reduction of deathd) Reduction of
fever e) Relief of headache5.1) For most drugs, a frequency distribution of the
response plotted against the log of thedose (quantal) produces what kind of
curve?a) Linear b) Exponentialc) Logarithmicd) Gaussian (normal) distributione)
Poisson distribution5.2) Generally, which of the following is the correct order as
dosage is increased?a) ED50 < LD50 < TD50 b) ED50 < TD50 < LD50c) LD50 <
TD50 < ED50d) LD50 < ED50 < TD50e) TD50 < LD50 < ED505.3) Which of the
following is the median effective dose, or the dose at which 50% of theindividuals
exhibit the specified quantal response?a) LD50 b) ED50c) EC50d) TD50e) T.I.6.1)
Which of the following is considered the therapeutic index (or ratio)?a) T.I. =
TD50 / ED50
Pharmacology – Part 1 14Mar2009DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 24 - b) T.I. = LD50 /
ED50c) T.I. = ED50 / TD50d) T.I. = ED50 / LD50e) A & B6.2) Which of the
following can be used as a relative indicator of the margin of safety of a drug?a)
LD50 b) ED50c) EC50d) TD50e) T.I.6.3) Which of the following is the most
relevant use of therapeutic index?a) Guide for toxicity in therapeutic the setting b)
Multiple measures of effectiveness are possible (e.g. aspirin)c) Measure of
impunity with which an overdose may be toleratedd) Toxicities may be
idiosyncratic (e.g. propranolol in asthmatics)7.1) Which of the following refers to
an increased intensity of response to a drug?a) Idiosyncratic b) Hyporeactivec)
Hyperreactived) Hypersensitivee) Tolerance7.2) Tachyphylaxis refers to which of
the following?a) Responsiveness increased rapidly after administration of a drug b)
Responsiveness decreased rapidly after administration of a drugc) Responsiveness
increased rapidly after maintenance of a drug (hypersensitive)d) Responsiveness
decreased rapidly after maintenance of a drug (desensitized)
10 – Receptor-Effector Coupling
1) Which of the following would occur with an antagonist binding to a receptor
and notan agonist?a) Ion channel closed b) Enzyme inhibitedc) Endogenous
mediator blockedd) Ion channel modulatede) DNA transcription2.1) Nicotinic ACh
receptors (ligand-gated) involve the movement of what ion across themembrane?a)
K+ b) Ca++c) Cl-d) Na+e) Mg++2.2) The nicotinic receptor requires one molecule
of ACh to bind to each of the two ____ receptors in order to activate the receptor
and open the channel.a)
!
(alpha)
Pharmacology – Part 1 14Mar2009DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 25 - b)
"
(beta)c)
#
(gamma)d)
$
(delta)2.3) GABA A receptors (ligand-gated) involve the movement of what ion
across themembrane?a) K+ b) Ca++c) Cl-d) Na+e) Mg++2.4) Which of the
following is increased in intracellular concentration due to secondmessengers such
as IP3?a) K+ b) Ca++c) Cl-d) Na+e) Mg++
Match the G protein with the action it causes:
2.5) Activates phospholipase C (PLC) a) Gs2.6) Activates K+ channels b) Gi2.7)
Inhibits Ca++ channels c) Go2.8) Activates Ca++ channels d) Gq2.9) Which of the
following signaling mechanisms involves phosphorylation of substrate proteins
and has receptors that are polypeptides with cytoplasmic enzyme domains(tyrosine
kinase, serine kinase, guanylyl cyclase)?a) Intracellular receptors for lipid soluble
ligands b) Transmembrane receptorsc) G-protein coupled receptorsd) Ligand-gated
ion channels2.10) Regulated by cytokines and growth factors, the Janus-Kinase
JAK-STAT pathwayresults in which of the following?a) Ion channel closing b)
Enzyme inhibitionc) Endogenous mediator blockingd) Ion channel modulatione)
Gene transcription2.11) Which of the following describes the pathway of nitric
oxide (NO)?a) Stimulates guanylyl cyclase, increase cGMP concentration,
vasodilation b) Stimulates guanylyl cyclase, decreases cGMP concentration,
vasodilationc) Stimulates guanylyl cyclase, increase cGMP concentration,
vasoconstrictiond) Inhibits guanylyl cyclase, increase cGMP concentration,
vasodilatione) Inhibits guanylyl cyclase, decreases cGMP concentration,
vasoconstriction2.12) Which of the following signaling mechanisms can involve
heat-shock protein(hsp90)?a) Intracellular receptors for lipid soluble ligands b)
Transmembrane receptors
Pharmacology – Part 1 14Mar2009DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 26 -c) G-protein
coupled receptorsd) Ligand-gated ion channels3.1) All of the following interact
with ligand-gated ion channels EXCEPT:a) Benzodiazepines b) Insulinc)
Glutamated) Aspartatee) Glycine3.2) Which of the following is NOT a second
messenger associated with G proteins?a) DAG b) GDPc) IP3d) cAMPe) cGMP3.3)
Muscarinic ACh receptors and adrenergic receptors are associated with which of
thefollowing?a) Intracellular receptors for lipid soluble ligands b) Transmembrane
receptors with enzymatic cytosolic domainsc) G-protein coupled receptorsd)
Ligand-gated ion channels3.4) In smooth muscle and glandular tissue, ACh binds
to what muscarinic receptor,leading to the DAG cascade?a) M1 b) M2c) M3d)
M4e) M53.5) In the heart and intestines, what muscarinic receptor inhibits
adenylyl cyclaseactivity?a) M1 b) M2c) M3d) M4e) M53.6) Adrenergic
!
2 receptors ____ adenylyl cyclase and
"
receptors ____ adenylylcyclase.a) Stimulate; Stimulate b) Stimulate; Inhibitc)
Inhibit; Inhibitd) Inhibit; Stimulate3.7) Which of the following is NOT a ligand-
regulated transmembrane enzyme (agent)?a) Insulin b) EGPc) PDFGd) ANPe) NO
Pharmacology – Part 1 14Mar2009DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 27 -3.8) Which of the
following cytokine receptors (transmembrane enzyme) is antagonized by anakinra
(Kineret), for treatment of rheumatoid arthritis?a) Growth hormone b)
Erythropoietinc) Interferonsd) Interleukin-13.9) Which of the following is NOT an
intracellular receptor for lipid-soluble agent,which stimulates gene transcription in
the nucleus by binding to DNA sequences?a) Steroids b) Vitamin Ac) Vitamin Dd)
Thyroid hormonee) Nitric oxide
Match the receptors with their time scale:
4.1) Insulin receptor a) Miliseconds4.2) Muscarinic ACh receptor b) Seconds4.3)
Estrogen receptor c) Minutes4.4) Nicotinic ACh receptor d) Hours
11 – Autonomic Pharmacology: Sympathetic Nervous System
1.1) The sympathetic nervous system (SNS) and parasympathetic nervous system
aredivisions of which of the following?a) Somatic nervous system division of
peripheral nervous system b) Somatic nervous system division of central nervous
systemc) Autonomic nervous system division of peripheral nervous systemd)
Autonomic nervous system division of central nervous system1.2) Preganglionic
sympathetic and parasympathetic fibers release ____, postganglionic
parasympathetic fibers release ____ (for muscarinic cholinergic receptors), and
postganglionic sympathetic fibers release ____ (for adrenergic receptors).a) ACh;
ACh; NE b) ACh; NE; AChc) NE; ACh; NEd) NE; NE; ACh1.3) Which of the
following adrenergic receptors is most commonly found pre-synaptic?a)
!
1 b)
!
2c)
"
1d)
"
2e)
"
31.4) Which of the following describes the result of adrenal medulla stimulation?a)
Mass parasympathetic discharge, 85:15 ratio of epi:norepi b) Mass
parasympathetic discharge, 15:85 ratio of epi:norepic) Mass sympathetic
discharge, 85:15 ratio of epi:norepid) Mass sympathetic discharge, 15:85 ratio of
epi:norepi
Match the sympathetic response with the receptor:
1.5) Increased lipid breakdown a)
!
1
Pharmacology – Part 1 14Mar2009DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 28 -1.6) Peripheral
vasoconstriction b)
"
11.7) Increased heart rate and blood pressure c)
"
21.8) Bronchial dilation, coronary dilation, glucose conversion d)
"
31.9) What amino acids is converted into catecholamines (NE, Epi, Dopamine)?a)
Alanine b) Prolinec) Lysined) Tyrosinee) Valine1.10) Which of the following is
transported into vesicles via the vesicular monoaminetransporter (VMAT), uptake
2, a proton antiporter?a) Epinephrine b) Norepinephrinec) Dopamine1.11) Which
of the following is co-stored and co-released with ATP?a) Epinephrine b)
Norepinephrinec) Dopamine1.12) Which of the following form varicosities or en
passant synapses, with the arrival of an action potential leading to Ca++ influx and
exocytosis?a) Presynaptic sympathetic b) Presynaptic parasympatheticc)
Postsynaptic sympatheticd) Postsynaptic parasympathetic2.1) Which of the
following methods of terminating axon response is NOT a target for drug action?a)
Reuptake via NE transporter (NET): Uptake 1 b) Metabolism of NE of inactive
metabolitec) NE diffusion away from synaptic cleft2.2) NET is a symporter of
what ion?a) K+ b) Ca++c) Cl-d) Na+e) Mg++2.3) Which of the following is
recycled via VMAT into vesicles after responsetermination?a) NE b) L-DOPAc)
NETd) EPIe) DOPGAL2.4) Which of the following is broken down by MAO-B
(monoamine oxidase) more thanthe others?a) Serotonin (5-HT) b) Norepinepherine
(NE)
Pharmacology – Part 1 14Mar2009DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 29 -c) Dopamine
(DA)2.5) Where is the cytosolic catecholamine metabolizing enzyme catechol-O-
methyltransferase (COMT) primarily found?a) Liver b) GI tractc) Placentad)
Blood platelets3.1) Which of the following receptor subtypes relaxes smooth
muscle and causes liver glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis?a)
!
1 (Gq/Gi/Go) b)
!
2 (Gi/Go)c)
"
1 (Gs)d)
"
2 (Gs)e)
"
3 (Gs)3.2) Which of the following receptor subtypes causes vascular smooth
muscle contractionand genitourinary smooth muscle contraction?a)
!
1 (Gq/Gi/Go) b)
!
2 (Gi/Go)c)
"
1 (Gs)d)
"
2 (Gs)e)
"
3 (Gs)3.3) Which of the following receptor subtypes increases cardiac chronotropy
(rate) andinotropy (contractility), increases AV-node conduction velocity, and
increases renninsecretion in renal juxtaglomerular cells?a)
!
1 (Gq/Gi/Go) b)
!
2 (Gi/Go)c)
"
1 (Gs)d)
"
2 (Gs)e)
"
3 (Gs)3.4) Which of the following receptor subtypes decreases insulin secretion
from pancreatic
"
-cells, decreases nerve cell norepinephrine release, and contracts vascular
smoothmuscle?a)
!
1 (Gq/Gi/Go) b)
!
2 (Gi/Go)c)
"
1 (Gs)d)
"
2 (Gs)e)
"
3 (Gs)4.1) What type(s) of second messenger(s) interact with adenylyl cyclase?a)
!
1 b)
!
2c)
"
d)
"
&
!
1e)
"
&
!
24.2) What type(s) of second messenger(s) are associated with phospholipase C
(PLC)?a)
!
1
Pharmacology – Part 1 14Mar2009DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 30 - b)
!
2c)
"
d)
"
&
!
1e)
"
&
!
24.3) Which of the following adrenergic receptor activation mechanisms is
involved withephedrine, amphetamine, and tyramine?a) Direct binding to the
receptor b) Promoting release of norepinephrinec) Inhibiting reuptake of
norepinephrined) Inhibiting inactivation of norepinephrine4.4) Which of the
following adrenergic receptor activation mechanisms is involved withMAO
inhibitors?a) Direct binding to the receptor b) Promoting release of
norepinephrinec) Inhibiting reuptake of norepinephrined) Inhibiting inactivation of
norepinephrine4.5) Which of the following adrenergic receptor activation
mechanisms is involved withtricyclic antidepressants and cocaine?a) Direct
binding to the receptor b) Promoting release of norepinephrinec) Inhibiting
reuptake of norepinephrined) Inhibiting inactivation of norepinephrine4.6) Which
of the following is NOT true of catecholamines?a) Non-polar b) Cannot cross the
blood-brain barrier c) Cannot be used as an oral drugd) Have brief duratione)
MAO and COMT act rapidly
Match the catecholamine with the receptor(s):
4.7) Isoproterenol a)
!
&
"
4.8) Dobutamine b)
"
4.9) Norepinepherine c)
"
14.10) Dopamine d) D1 & D24.11) Epinepherine4.12) The basic structure of a
catecholamine involves a catechol ring and which of thefollowing types of
amines?a) Methyl amine b) Ethyl aminec) Butyl amined) Tert-butyl aminee)
Propyl amine
Match the noncatecholamines with the receptor agonist:
4.13) Clonidine a)
!
1-agonist4.14) Metaproterenol, terbutaline, ritodine b)
!
2-agonist4.15) Phenylephrine c)
"
2-agonist
Pharmacology – Part 1 14Mar2009DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 31 -5.1) Which of the
following is a long-acting (oral)
!
1-agonist and not a short-acting(nasal spray, ophthalmic drops)
!
1-agonist?a) Phenylephrine b) Oxymetazolinec) Tetrahydrazalined)
Pseudoephedrine5.2) Which of the following would NOT be used as a topical
vasoconstrictor for a patientwith epistaxis (nasal pack soaked in drug)?a)
Phenylephrine b) Epinepherinec) Oymetazolined) Isoproterenol5.3)
!
1 drugs can be given with local anesthetics to vasoconstrictor and decrease
bloodflow to the side of administration. Which of the following should not be
given above theweb space?a) Phenylephrine b) Epinephrinec) Methoxamine5.4)
Which of the following is the
!
1 drug of choice (DOC) for retinal exams andsurgery, giving mydiasis (dilation of
iris)?a) Ephedrine b) Epinepherinec) Oymetazolined) Isoproterenole)
Phenylephrine5.5)
!
2-agonists are only approved for hypertension and work by decreasing
sympathetictone and increasing vagal tone. Which of the following is NOT a
!
2-agonist?a) Clonidine b) Methyldopac) Guanabenzd) Guanfacinee)
Epinephrine5.6) At the adrenergic synapse, what does
!
2 do?a) Stimulates NE release b) Inhibits NE releasec) Stimulates ACh released)
Inhibits ACh release5.7) Which of the following agonists would be used for
asthma patients or to delay premature labor?a)
!
2-agonist b)
!
1-agonistc)
"
3-agonistd)
"
2-agoniste)
"
1-agonist5.8) Which of the following agonists would be used for cardiogenic
shock, cardiac arrest,heart block, or heart failure?
Pharmacology – Part 1 14Mar2009DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 32 -a)
!
1-agonist b)
!
2-agonistc)
"
1-agonistd)
"
2-agoniste)
"
3-agonist5.9) Which of the following is NOT a
"
2-agonist?a) Terbutaline b) Ritodrinec) Metaproterenold) Albuterole)
Phenylepherine5.10)
"
2 stimulation leads to an increase in the cellular uptake of what ion, and thus
adecrease in plasma concentration of that ion?a) K+ b) Ca++c) Cl-d) Na+e)
Mg++5.11) Dopamine receptor activation (D1) dilates renal blood vessels at low
dose. Athigher doses (treatment for shock), which of the following receptor is
activated?a)
!
1 b)
!
2c)
"
1d)
"
2e)
"
35.12) Which of the following responses to sympathetic stimulation would
preventreceptors from being couples with G-proteins?a) Sequestration b) Down-
regulationc) Phosphorylation5.13) Which of the following is the action of the
indirect-acting sympathomimetic drugcocaine?a) Stimulator of NET (uptake 1) b)
Inhibitor of NET (uptake 1)c) Stimulator of VMAT (uptake 2)d) Inhibitor of
VMAT (uptake 2)5.14) Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) have a great deal of side
effects. Which of thefollowing is the action of TCAs?a) Stimulator of NET (uptake
1) b) Inhibitor of NET (uptake 1)c) Stimulator of VMAT (uptake 2)d) Inhibitor of
VMAT (uptake 2)5.15) Which of the following is NOT a mixed
sympathomimetic?a) Amphetamine b) Methamphetaminec) Ephedrine
Pharmacology – Part 1 14Mar2009DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 33 -d)
Phenylepherinee) Pseudoephedrine5.16) Prior to an operation to remove a
pheochromocytoma (neuroendocrine tumor of themedulla of the adrenal glands),
which of the following should be given to the patient?a)
!
-agonist b)
!
-blocker c)
"
-agonistd)
"
-blocker 5.17) Which of the following is NOT an indication for
"
-blocker therapy?a) Hypotension b) Angina pectorisc) Arrhythmiasd) Myocardial
infarctione) Glaucoma5.18) Which of the following
"
-blockers is used for decreasing aqueous humor secretionsfrom the ciliary body?a)
Propranolol b) Nadololc) Carvedilold) Timolole) Metoprolol5.19) Which of the
following is NOT considered cardioselective?a) Metoprolol b) Atenololc)
Esmolold) Carvedilol5.20) Blocking
!
2 presynaptic receptors will do which of the following?a) Stimulate NE release b)
Inhibit NE releasec) Stimulate DA released) Inhibit DA release5.21) Which of the
following drugs irreversibly damages VMAT?a) Tyramine b) Guanethidinec)
Reserpined) Propranolole) Epinepherine6.1) Which of the following is the most
likely to occur with parenteral administration of a
!
1-agonist drug?a) Hypotension b) Hypertensionc) Tissue necrosisd) Vasodilatione)
Lipolysis6.2) Which of the following agonists can have dose-related withdrawal
syndrome if thedrug is withdrawn too quickly, leading to rebound hypertension?
Pharmacology – Part 1 14Mar2009DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 34 -a)
!
1-agonist b)
!
2-agonistc)
"
1-agonistd)
"
2-agoniste)
"
3-agonist6.3) Which of the following agonists can have sedation and xerostomia
(dry mouth) in50% of patients starting therapy, sexual dysfunction in males,
nauseas, dizziness, andsleep disturbances?a)
!
1-agonist b)
!
2-agonistc)
"
1-agonistd)
"
2-agoniste)
"
3-agonist6.4) Which of the following agonists can cause hyperglycemia in
diabetics?a)
!
2-agonist b)
!
1-agonistc)
"
3-agonistd)
"
2-agoniste)
"
1-agonist6.5) Angina pectoris, tachycardia, and arrhythmias are possible adverse
effects of whichof the following agonists?a)
!
2-agonist b)
!
1-agonistc)
"
3-agonistd)
"
2-agoniste)
"
1-agonist6.6) If a patient is taking MAO inhibitors and ingests tyramine (red wine,
aged cheese),which of the following acute responses is most likely?
(sympathomimetic)a) Stimulation of NE release b) Inhibition of NE releasec)
Stimulation of ACh released) Inhibition of ACh releasee) No response due to
MAO inhibitor 6.7) Which of the following occurs acutely, leading to a false
neurotransmitter, withincreased guanethidine? (sympathomimetic)a) Stimulation of
NE release b) Inhibition of NE releasec) Stimulation of ACh released) Inhibition of
ACh release6.8) Major adverse affects of the
!
1 blockade include reflex tachycardia and which of thefollowing?a) Orthostatic
tachycardia b) Orthostatic bradycardiac) Orthostatic hypertensiond) Orthostatic
hypotension
Pharmacology – Part 1 14Mar2009DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 35 -e) Increased
cardiac output6.9) Which of the following effects would be intensified with the
!
2 blockade?a) Reflex tachycardia b) Reflex bradycardiac) Orthostatic
hypertensiond) Orthostatic hypotensione) Platelet clotting6.10) Which of the
following is NOT an adverse affect of the
"
1 blockade?a) Bradycardia b) Decreased cardiac outputc) AV node block d)
Increased arrhythmiase) Heart failure6.11) Which of the following is the most
severe adverse effect that has been associatedwith sudden termination of
"
1-blockers?a) Atrial fibrillation b) Reflex bradycardiac) Syncope (fainting)d)
Anginae) Sudden death6.12) Which of the following groups of patients is most at
risk for adverse effect seen in
"
2-blockers?a) Asthmatics b) Congestive heart failure patientsc) Trauma patientsd)
Diabeticse) Patients with deep vein thromboses (DVTs)6.13) Which of the
following can be detrimental in diabetics and also can lead to maskingof
tachycardia, which is indicative of hypoglycemia?a)
!
1-blocker b)
!
2-blocker c)
"
1-blocker d)
"
2-blocker e)
"
3-blocker
12 – Autonomic Pharmacology: Parasympathetic Nervous System
1.1) Which of the following is NOT true regarding the parasympathetic nervous
system?a) Is considered cranio-sacral b) Involves rest and digestion functionsc)
Has nicotinic receptors on cell bodies of all postganglionic neuronsd) Target
organs have muscarinic receptors for AChe) Innervation of vascular smooth
muscle1.2) Where is acetyl CoA synthesized (pre-synthesis for ACh)?a) Synaptic
cleft b) Cytosolc) Mitochondria
Pharmacology – Part 1 14Mar2009DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 36 -d) Extracellular
matrixe) Lysosomes1.3) Which of the following locations contains choline from
phosphatidylcholine?a) Milk b) Liver c) Eggsd) Peanutse) Blood plasma1.4) What
part of the cholinergic synapse is affected by botulinum toxin?a) ACh increased b)
ACh decreasedc) Muscarinic ACh receptor modifiedd) Nicotinic ACh receptor
modifiede) AChE inhibited1.5) ACh is packaged into vesicles via what ACh ion
antiporter?a) K+ b) Ca++c) Cl-d) Na+e) H+1.6) Influx of what ion causes ACh
release into the synaptic cleft, prior to ACh beingterminated by
acetylcholinesterase (AChE)?a) K+ b) Ca++c) Cl-d) Na+e) H+2.1) Nicotinic N2
receptors are the ____ subtype and nicotinic N1 receptors are the ____ subtype.a)
Neuronal; Muscular b) Muscular; Neuronalc) Nodal; Neuronald) Neuronal;
Nodale) Sympathetic; Parasympathetic2.2) Which of the following best description
of the drug nicotine?a) Muscular subtype nicotinic agonist b) Muscular subtype
nicotinic antagonistc) Neuronal subtype nicotinic agonistd) Neuronal subtype
nicotinic antagonist2.3) Amanita muscaria (fly Amanita) is a fungal muscarinic
agonist, which is most oftenassociated with which side effect?a) Tachycardia b)
Bradycardiac) Euphoriad) Sedatione) Hallucinations
Pharmacology – Part 1 14Mar2009DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 37 -2.4) Which of the
following G-protein is associated with smooth muscle and glandular tissue,
muscarinic receptor M3, mobilizing internal Ca++ and the DAG cascade?a) Gs b)
Gic) Gqd) Go2.5) Which of the following G-protein is associated with heart and
intestines, muscarinicreceptor M2, decreasing adenylyl cyclase activity.a) Gs b)
Gic) Gqd) Go2.6) The drugs bethanechol and pilocarpine are:a) Acetylcholine
agonists b) Acetylcholine antagonistsc) Muscarinic agonistsd) Muscarinic
antagonistse) Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors3.1) Which of the following is NOT a
primary effect of stimulating muscarinic Mreceptors?a) Release of nitric oxide
(vasodilation) b) Iris contraction (miosis)c) Ciliary muscle contraction and
accommodation of the lens (near vision)d) Bronchi dilation and decreased
bronchiole secretionse) Salivary/lacrimal thin and watery secretions3.2) Which of
the following is NOT a primary effect of stimulating muscarinic Mreceptors?a)
Tachycardia, increased conduction velocity b) Increased GI tract tone and
secretionsc) Diaphoresis from sweat glandsd) Penile erectione) Contraction of
urinary detrusor muscle and relaxation of urinary sphincter 3.3) What is
bethanechol most commonly used for?a) For decreasing heart rate b) To decrease
blood pressure (vasodilation)c) For urinary retentiond) Decreasing intraocular
pressuree) For erectile dysfunction3.4) What is pilocarpine most commonly used
for?a) For decreasing heart rate b) To decrease blood pressure (vasodilation)c) For
urinary retentiond) Decreasing intraocular pressuree) For erectile dysfunction3.5)
Which of the following is NOT a result of excessive cholinergic stimulation,
aswould be seen with a nerve agent or organophosphate poisoning?
Pharmacology – Part 1 14Mar2009DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 38 -a) Diarrhea b)
Diaphoresisc) Mydriasisd) Nauseae) Urinary urgency3.6) What type of drugs are
atropine, scopolamine, and pirenzepine?a) Acetylcholine agonists b) Acetylcholine
antagonistsc) Muscarinic agonistsd) Muscarinic antagonistse) Acetylcholinesterase
inhibitors3.7) What drug is a natural alkaloid found in Solanaceae plants (deadly
nightshade)?a) Bethanechol b) Pilocarpinec) Pirenzepined) Scopolaminee)
Atropine4) What two clinical results of atropine facilitate opthalmoscopic
examination?a) Mydriasis (iris dilation) and increased lacrimation b) Cycloplegia
(ciliary paralysis) and miosis (iris constriction)c) Miosis and increased
lacrimationd) Mydriasis and cycloplegiae) Xerophthalmia (dry eyes) and
mydriasis5.1) Which of the following is an adverse affect of atropine?a) Increased
salivation b) Blurred visionc) Bradycardiad) Diaphoresise) Decreased intraocular
pressure5.2) Which of the following is NOT a major symptom of atropine
toxicity?a) Blind as a bat b) Red as a beetc) Mad as a hatter d) Hot as a haree) Wet
as a towel5.3) Which of the following topical ophthalmic drugs is also used for
motion sickness?(injection, oral, or transdermal patch)a) Atropine b)
Scopolaminec) Homatropined) Tropicamide5.4) Of the following
mydriatics/cycloplegics, ____ last 7-10 days (longest) and ____ last6 hours
(shortest).a) Atropine; Scopolamine b) Scopolamine; Homatropinec) Homatropine;
Tropicamide
Pharmacology – Part 1 14Mar2009DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 39 -d) Tropicamide;
Atropinee) Atropine; Tropicamide6) Butyrylcholinesterase (BuChE) is a
nonspecific pseudocholinesterase located in glia, plasma, liver, and other organs.
What type of local anesthetics are metabolized by BuChE(e.g. procaine), along
with succinylcholine (paralytic)?a) Ester b) Ether c) Amined) Alkanee)
Alcohol7.1) Which of the following reversible cholinesterase inhibitors is used for
atropineintoxication?a) Neostigmine b) Physostigminec) Endrophoniumd)
Donepezile) Pyridostigmine7.2) Which of the following reversible cholinesterase
inhibitors is used for anesthesia?a) Neostigmine b) Physostigminec)
Endrophoniumd) Donepezile) Pyridostigmine7.3) Which of the following
reversible cholinesterase inhibitors is used for Alzheimer disease?a) Neostigmine
b) Physostigminec) Endrophoniumd) Donepezile) Pyridostigmine7.4) Which of the
following cholinesterase inhibitors is NOT used for Myasthenia Gravis(MG)?a)
Neostigmine b) Physostigminec) Endrophoniumd) Pyridostigmine7.5) Which of
the following is NOT an irreversible cholinesterase inhibitor (organophosphate
AChE inhibitors)?a) Tacrine b) Echothiophatec) Sarin, toban, somand) Malathion,
parathione) Isoflurophate7.6) By what mechanism do irreversible ACHE inhibitors
permanently bind to theesteratic site enzyme?a) Hydroxylation
Pharmacology – Part 1 14Mar2009DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 40 - b) Hydrolysisc)
Phosphorylationd) Peptidee) Methylation7.7) A MARK-1 autoinjection kit is given
to certain medical and military personnel whomay be exposed to nerve agents or
organophosphate pesticides. The kit has two drugs, anacetylcholinesterase inhibitor
and a cholinesterase reactivator (antidote). What two drugswould you expect to be
in this kit?a) Pralidoxime (2-PAM) and echothiophate b) Parathion and
adenosinec) Scopolamine and tropicamided) Mecamylamine and pralidoxime (2-
PAM)e) Atropine and pralidoxime (2-PAM)7.8) Some organophosphate AChE
inhibitor insecticides have a 40 hour half life. What isthe approximate half life of
soman?a) 6 seconds b) 6 minutesc) 1 hour d) 6 hourse) 60 hours8.1) What is
currently the only ganglion blocker (shuts down entire ANS) still availablein the
United States?a) Mecamylamine b) Scopolaminec) Echothiophated) Pralidoximee)
Parathion8.2) Which of the following is NOT an effect of autonomic ganglion
blocking?a) Anhidrosis and xerostomia b) Mydriasisc) Tachycardiad)
Hypertensione) CycloplegiaJames