PEBC Mock Test Question Paper

1) Which of the following is one of the ankle bones?
a) Carpals
b) Tarsals
c) Patella
2) Intaraarticular injection is in :
a) Bone
b) Joint
c) Spine
d) heart
e) artery
3) Which of the following organs found in the left side of the human body?
a) Liver
b) Spleen
c) Appendix
d) Bladder
4) Milk allergy is an adverse immune reaction to :
a) Calcium
b) Lactose
c) Protein
d) Vitamin D
e) Amino Acid
5) When a vagal stimulation occurs, which of these substances will be released?
a) Dopamine
b) Serotonin
c) Insulin
d) Vasopressin
e) Acetylcholine
6) Famciclovir is used in :
a) Herpes simplex
b) west Nile virus
c) Bacterial infection
d) Fungal infection
7) All of the following are a sexual-transmitted disease Except :
a) Trichomoniasis
b) Herpes simplex
c) Herpes Zoster
d) Gonorrhea
8) The most common GIT disorder is :
a) Zolinger-Ellison syndrome
b) Peptic Ulcer
c) GastroEsophogeal Reflux Disease
d) Acid Hyper secretion
e) Ulcerative Colitis
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9) For a patient taking Acetylsalicylic Acid 350 mg, which of these patients is the
least to cause gastric bleeding? ( CHECK )
a) Take it with food
b) Patient over 70 years old
c) Taken Naproxen at the same time
10) All of the following can be taken with or after food Except :
a) Sucralfate
b) Predinsolone
c) Losartan
d) Carbamazipine
11) Which of the following medication for treatment of glaucoma is taken orally?
a) Acetazolamide
b) Dorzalomide
c) pilocarpine
d) latanoprost
12) Which of these medications cause iris pigmentation?
a) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
b) Prostaglandins F2 α analog
c) Adrenergic antagonist
d) Cholinergic agonist
13) Linoleic acid & Linolenic acid are structurally differ in :
a) Number of double bond
b) Stereochemistry
(N.B: The position of the double bond was not one of the choices)
14) Which of the following is not a symptoms of Rheumatoid arthritis :
a) Muscle pain
b) Fatigue
c) morning stiffness
d) swelling
15) H.Pylori treatment include all the following Except :
a) Metronidazole
b) Clarithromycin
c) Amoxicillin
d) Tetracycline
e) Vancomycin
16) All are used in treatment of acute gout Except :
a) Acetaminophen
b) Prednisone
c) Celecoxib
d) Colchicines
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e) Indomethacin
17) Lysosomes are responsible for cellular:
a) Protein formation
b) Energy production
c) Enzyme digestion
d) Transport of DNA
e) Permeability
18) Mitochondria is an organelle that responsible for :
a) Formation of protein
b) Production of ATP
c) Digestion of enzymes
d) Transportation of DNA
19) Which of the following enzymes is responsible for phosphorylation of amino
acids?
a) Kinase
b) Lyase
c) Esterase
d) Synthetase
20) How many cis double bond can be found in that structure?
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
e) 4
21) Metformin is found in 2 chemical structure which are :
& , what is the relationship in between
these 2 structures?
a) Tautomers
b) Conjugate acid/base
c) Polymorphism
d) Structural isomers
22) This structure is?
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a) Phenothiazine
b) Tricyclic Antidepressant
c) Benzodiazepines
d) Antihistaminic
23) During the metabolism of purine bases which of these compound is formed?
a) Hypoxanthine
b) Azathioprine
c) Mercaptopurine
24) A patient with high urinary Urobilinogen , that indicate a disease in:
a) Bladder
b) Kidney
c) Liver
d) Heart
e) Pancreas
25) Oral Vancomycin is used in case of :
a) MRSA
b) Pseudomembraneous colitis caused by Clostridium difficile
26) Which of these vaccines is advised to prevent traveller diarrhea?
a) Cholera vaccine
b) Hepatitis A Vaccine
c) Hepatitis B Vaccine
d) Rota Vaccine
e) Gardasil Vaccine
27) The most common cause of Cervix epithelia cancer is?
a) Human papilloma virus
b) Polyps
c) Having no children
d) Multiple birth
28) Pneumonia-causing bacteria pathogens include all of the below Except :
a) Streptococcus pneumoniae
b) Moraxella catarrhalis
c) Bacteroides fragilis
d) Haemophilus influenzae
29) Which of the following is a symptom of chronic bronchitis?
a) Productive sputum cough
b) Dyspenia
c) Non productive cough
30) What is the treatment of chronic sinusitis?
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a) Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid
b) Levofloxacin
c) Azithromycin
31) A 30 year old man has gonorrhea, what is the appropriate treatment?
a) Cefixime followed by azithromycin
b) Ceftriaxone
c) Nitrofurantoin
d) Ampicillin
32) A 60 years old woman with gout , which of the following antihypertensive agent
must not be used :
a) Hydrochlorothiazide
b) ACE-I
c) ARBs
d) B-Blockers
33) what antihypertensive agent used for mild to moderate hypertensive patient
with congestive heart failure :
a) Nifedipine
b) Verapamil
c) Labetolol
d) Hydrochlorothiazide
34) Which of the following cause pneumonia :
I. Streptococcus Pneumonaie
II. Haemophilus Influenzae
III. Staph. aureus
a) I Only
b) III Only
c) I, II Only
d) II , III Only
e) All answers
35) Lipase elevation indicates a disease in :
a) Pancreas
b) Liver
c) Heart
d) Kidney
36) Patient with a problem in valve of the heart can be diagnosed by :
a) Echocardiogram
b) Electrocardiogram
c) Blood pressure measure
d) Exercise Electrocardiogram
37) The deoxygenated blood go to the right atrium of the heart from all the body
through :
a) Pulmonary vein
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b) Carotid artery
c) Aorta
d) Superior Vena Cava
38) Dehydration can cause all Except :
a) Thirst
b) Dizziness
c) Headache
d) Hypertension
e) Dry skin
39) Pre-eclampsia is characterised by :
a) Hypertension
b) Hypotension
c) Hyperglycemia
d) Hypoglycemia
40) Regarding high blood pressure, what is a true statement?
a) BP reading of 160/100 at home requires referral to Emergency Room
b) BP reading of 160/100 in the pharmacy requires referral to Emergency Room
c) 160/100 is a sufficient for a diagnosis of hypertension
d) Cuffs should be placed at heart level when measuring
e) BP reading at home may be inaccurate due to untrained use
41) Which can reduce cardiac oxygen demand without causing vasodilatation?
a) Atenolol
b) Felodipine
c) Nitroglycerine
d) Minoxidil
e) Hydralazine
42) Which of the following cause venous pooling?
a) Nitrates
b) Nifedipine
c) Digoxin
43) NADP is needed for :
a) Biotin
b) Niacin
c) Riboflavin
d) Thiamine
e) Cyanocobalamin
44) Which vitamin may cause flushing?
a) Vitamin B1
b) Vitamin B2
c) Vitamin B3
d) Vitamin B6
e) Vitamin B9
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45) Which is true about Niacin Except :
a) Niacin dose as lipid lowering agent is so small
b) Hepatic Enzyme elevation cause by niacin in tablet form
46) All of the following are an appropriate advices for a lady suffers from hot flash
Except :
a) Light Exercise
b) Take 0.5 mg Aspirin
c) Light cloths
d) Use fan
47) All are appropriate advices for haemorrhoid patient Except :
a) Avoid taking acid fruit juice
b) Avoid heavy lifting
c) Avoid straining
d) Avoid sitting for long periods
48) Smoking in pregnancy may affects fetus by :
a) Neuro disorder
b) Lung not formed well
c) Interrupt Oxygen transfer through the placenta
49) what is the property of the drug that can be found in breast tissue with high
concentration
a) Low Molecular Weight
b) Low Lipid Solubility
c) High Protein Binding
d) High Acidic product
50) When a drug circulating in blood & highly perfuse organs, we name it :
a) Central Compartment
b) Peripheral Compartment
c) 2- Compartment
d) Multi Compartment
51) In end stage renal failure Calcium is given to :
a) Reduce hyperphosphatemia
b) Reduce hyperalbuminuria
c) Adjust Calcium level in the blood
52) Interleukins & TNF are considered :
a) Cytokines
b) Enzymes
c) Prostaglandins
d) Leukotrienes
53) OATP & OCT are considered :
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a) Cytokines
b) Transporters
c) Enzymes
54) The test to detect pyrogen in the parenteral preparations is called :
a) Limulus test
b) Coombs test
c) Schilling test
55) Demyelination is a characteristic for :
a) Multiple Sclerosis
b) Diabetic foot
c) Rheumatoid Arthritis
d) Polycystitis
e) Multiple Myeloma
56) What is true about the Sciatic nerve? ( CHECK )
a) innervate the whole foot
b) innervate the Hips
c) innervate the Buttocks large muscle
d) innervate the Quadriceps
57) Destruction of the radial nerve may cause :
a) Difficulty straightening the elbow
b) Difficulty moving the shoulders
58) Glutathione is made up of Glutamate , Glycine and :
a) Cysteine
b) Lysine
c) Alanaine
d) Tryptophan
e) Phenylalanine
59) In the ECG , Ventricular depolarization is indicated by :
a) P Wave
b) PR Interval
c) QRS Complex
d) ST Segments
e) QT Interval
60) Angiogenesis means :
a) Formation of new blood vessels
b) Formation of new bone
c) Formation of new Red Blood Cells
61) ACTH is secreted from :
a. Anterior Pituitary Gland
b. Posterior Pituitary Gland
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c. Thymus Gland
d. Adrenal Cortex
b) Pineal Gland
62) All of the following used in treatment of breast cancer Except :
a) Anstrazole
b) Letrazole
c) Tamoxifen
d) Bluctamide
e) Exemestane
63) Levothyroxine is used in the treatment of hypothyroidism by :
a) Act as a replace hormone
b) Increase conversion of T4 to T3
c) Increase synthesis of Thyroxin
64) Which is true about Diabetes?
a) Glucagon & Insulin have opposite effect on glucose metabolism
b) Metformin causes hypoglycemia
c) Repiglinide increase the secretion of insulin from B-cells in response to glucose
65) What is true about Regular Insulin?
a) Its onset of action is less than 1 hour
b) It's to be taken after food
66) Rx for weekly compliance package
Furosemide 40 mg 2 Tabs q am
Enalapril 10 mg 1 Tab With lunch
Lipitor 20 mg 1 Tab hs
Glyburide 2 Tabs bid
Which should trigger the attention of the pharmacist?
a) 1 Lipitor Tab. in the bed time slot
b) 2 Glyburide Tabs. in the morning and Supper slot
c) only 1 Tab. in lunch slot
d) 4 Tabs. in the morning slot
e) 1 Furosemide Tab. with breakfast and 1 Tab. with the Supper
67) The relation between B-Lymphocyte & Bone marrow is :
a) B-Lymphocyte produce antibody in the bone morrow
b) B-Lymphocyte formed from the bone marrow
68) A patient is on glargine insulin daily at bed time & takes Lispro three times daily
with meals, what is the best way to protect this patient from hypoglycemia during
sleep?
a) Take a snack at bed time with no change in doses of insulin
b) Decrease the dose of lispro
c) Increase the calories in his dinner
d) Skip the dose of lispro at night
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69) What is the mechanism of action of PropylThiouracil in the treatment of
hyperthyroid?
a) Inhibit the synthesis of TSH
b) Inhibit the synthesis of thyroxin
c) Increase the conversion of T3 to T4
70) Which of the following is a symptom of hypothyroidism?
a) Heat intolerance
b) Dry Skin
c) Tachycardia
d) Diarrhea
e) Weight loss
71) Decrease in ADH may cause :
a) Ploy urea
b) Oligurea
c) PolyPhagia
d) Protein in urine
72) All of the following are a symptoms of Septic shock Except :
a) Fever
b) Tachycardia
c) Increase Urine Volume
d) Hypotension
73) Which of the following products acts as 5- α reductase inhibitor?
a) Finasteride
b) Tamsulosin
c) Prazosin
74) Which of the following products used to shrink the size of the prostate in BPH?
a) Finasteride
b) Tamsulosin
c) Prazosin
75) All of the following are factors that affect the creatinine clearance Except :
a) Age
b) Gender
c) Weight
d) serum creatinine
e) Urine volume
76) What is true about amino glycoside?
a) Used in the treatment of pneumonia caused by pseudomonas aeruginosa
77) What is true about Post Antibiotic Effect?
a) The drug still has the power to prevent the growth of microorganisms after
duration of administration
b) Amino glycosides are an example against anaerobic microorganisms
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78) Which of the following products is suitable for a patient suffer from depression
and neuropathic pain?
a) Amitriptyline
b) Bupropion
c) Selegiline
d) Paroxetine
e) Mirtazapine
79) What is the duration of treatment needed for a patient with a first episode of
major depression?
a) 3 months
b) 6 months
c) 1 year
d) 2 years
e) No time limit
80) Drug X has a clearance of 300 ml/min while the normal clearance rate is
120ml/mint his indicate : ( Check )
a) Increase GFR and active excretion
b) Increase GFR and reabsorption
c) Increase active excretion
d) Increase GFR
81) What is the appropriate advice for a patient will use oral corticosteroid for a
month?
a) Rinse with water after taking the dose
b) Take the dose on an empty stomach
c) He may experience a drowsiness
d) Don't stop the medication suddenly
82) The western blot is used to detect :
a) Protein
b) RNA
c) DNA
d) Polysaccharides
83) What is true about the blot :
a) Northern blot detects the DNA
b) Southern blot detects the RNA
c) Eastern blot detects the protein
d) Western blot detects the protein
84) A lady comes into your pharmacy and is taking Captopril, Digoxin,
hydrochlorothiazide, and Furosemide. What should she monitor?
a) K levels and Mg levels
b) K levels and serum Creatinine
c) Serum TG
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d) Glucose levels
e) Serum Phosphates
85) Morphine cause respiratory depression due to its action on which receptor :
( Check )
a) Mu
b) Kappa
c) Delta
d) Mu & Kappa
e) Mu & Delta
86) All of the following cause hyperkalemia Except :
a) Vomiting
b) Spiranolactone
c) ARBs
d) ACE-I
e) Renal insufficiency
87) What is the mechanism of action of Spiranolactone?
a) Aldosteron antagonist
88) Respiratory acidosis caused by :
a) Decrease in HCO3
b) Increase in CO2 pressure
c) Decrease ventilation
89) Naturally occurring programmed cell death is known as:
a) Necrosis
b) Apoptosis
c) Atrophy
d) Mitosis
e) Cytosis
90) The process by which the neutrophils kill the strange cells in the serum by
engulfing is called
a) Phagocytosis
91) What are the most abundant white blood cells in the blood?
a) Monocytes
b) Basophiles
c) Neutrophils
d) Platelets
e) Macrophages
92) Which is responsible for the metabolism of mercaptopuric acid?
a) CYP3A4
b) Glucuronic acid
c) Glutathione S Transferase
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d) NABQI
e) Bilirubin
93) Which of the following glucournide metabolite is active :
a) Codeine
b) Digoxin
c) Beta Blocker
94) Jaundice in newborns is caused from a deficiency of:
a) Glucose
b) UDP glucose
c) Glucuronate
d) UDP glucuronate
e) UDP glucuronyl transferase
95) All of the following agents used to treat the nausea and vomiting caused after
chemotherapy Except :
a) Metochlopramide
b) Dexamethazone
c) Ondansetrone
d) Perchloperazine
e) Doxylamine
96) Which of the following chemotherapeutic agents acts by inhibit the synthesis
and formation of DNA:
a) Cisplatin
b) 5-Flurouracil
c) Vincristine
d) L-Aspraginase
e) Etopsoide
97) Patient with chronic COPD and had pneumonia , before he had pneumonia and
took amoxicillin Clavulonate since 2 months , what is the empirical treatment :
( Check )
a) Amoxicillin Clavulonate
b) Clarithromycin
c) Doxycycline
d) Levofloxacin
98) In Candida we can use all the following agents Except :
a) Fluconazole
b) Metronidazole
c) Ketoconazole
d) Nystatin
e) Amphotericin B
99) The drug of choice for treatment of athletes food is :
a) Clotrimazole
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b) Polymixin B
c) Germicidin
d) Bacteriocin
100) Treatment of impetigo in a 10 years patient :
a) Oral erythromycin
b) Oral amoxicillin
c) Topical mupricine
101) Patient with severe ulcerative colitis , what will be used to reduce
remission :
a) Infliximab
b) Prednisone
c) Azathioprine
102) This structure is found in :
a) Cephalosporins
b) Quinolone
c) Tetracycline
d) Macrolides
103) Which antibiotic works by inhibiting cell wall synthesis?
a) Aminoglycosides
b) Cephalosporins
c) Macrolides
d) Lincosamines
e) Tetracyclines
104) Which drug causes dry mouth?
a) Tiotropium
b) Pilocarpine
c) Acetylcholine
d) Physostigmine
e) Neostigmine
105) Which of the following give Parkinsonism effect:
a) Paroxetine
b) Haloperidol
c) Lithium
d) Clozapine
106) Acute Dystonia caused by antipsychotics treated by :
a) Benzotropine
107) A pharmacist plans a strategic plan so he develops a SWOT analysis, what
does the O stand for in this case?
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a) Opportunity
b) Outcome
c) Objectives
108) Which is not a symptom of rhinitis
a) Runny nose
b) Hives
c) Sneezing
d) Watery eye
e) Fever
109) What is the difference between Urinary Tract Infection & Uncomplicated
Urinary Tract Infection :(? Check )
a) Pain sensation during urination
b) Frequency of urination
c) Urgency of urination
d) Turbidity of urine
e) Fever
110) Which of the following herbal remedy can be used in treatment of
migraine?
a) Licorice
b) Chrysanthemum
c) St. John's wart
d) Guava
e) Ginkgo
111) Sumatriptan is used in treatment of migraine due to its effect as
a) Dopamine antagonist
b) 5HT1b/1d agonist
c) Acetylcholine antagonist
d) 5HT1b/1d antagonist
e) Dopamine agonist
112) Rods in the eye are responsible for:
a) Peripheral vision
b) color vision
c) Night vision
d) Acuity of vision
e) Rapid eye movement
113) Which of the following factors affect on the passage of a drug through the
stratum corneum?
a) Solubility
b) Dissolution
c) PKa
d) Partition Coefficient
e) Particle size
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114) Too much pressure n tablet during manufacture causes :
a) Capping
b) Lamination
c) Picking
d) Sticking
e) Mottling
115) Which of the following is a water soluble ointment base?
a) Lanoline
b) Yellow wax
c) Sodium Monostearate
d) PEG 3000 & PEG 6000 Mixture
116) Salbutamol is :
a) B1 Agonist
b) B2 Agonist
c) B Non Selective agonist
d) B1 Antagonist
e) B2 Antagonist
117) Filgrastim used in patients receiving strong chemotherapy to :
a) Protect them from Alopecia
b) Reduce the risk of Cardio toxicity
c) Reduce the risk of infection
d) Reduce the risk of pulmonary toxicity
e) Protect them from stomatitis
118) Cytochrome oxidase & Oxygen transport contain:
a) Myosin
b) Myoglobin
c) Heme
d) Albumin
e) Transferrin
119) Which of the following blood component which are important in drug
binding?
a) Albumin & VLDL
b) Albumin & Glycoprotein
c) RBCs& WBCs
120) High Extraction ratio is present in 🙁 Check )
a) High first pass effect
b) Zero Order
c) Second Order
(N.B: No first order among the choices)
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121) The Kaplan-Meier equation is applied for new therapies (such as dialysis or
antineoplastics) to measure patients’:
a) Preferences
b) Adverse reaction rate
c) Mortality rate
d) Morbidity rate
e) Survival rate
122) What is true about the chemical structure of Immunoglobulin? ( Check )
a) Contains heavy and light chain connected by disulfide bond
b) Consists of four subunits connected together by hydrogen bond
123) Which of the following drugs may require monitoring the eye of the
patient?
a) Phenytoin
b) Hydroxychloroquine
c) Carabamazepine
d) Haloperidol
124) All of the following products cause pulmonary fibrosis Except :
a) Amiodarone
b) Digoxin
c) Bleomycin
d) Bromocriptine
125) What is the best treatment of ADHD (Attention Deficit Hyperactivity
Disorder):
a) Methylphenidate
b) Amphetamines
c) Rivastigmine
d) Cocaine
126) Venlafaxine acts on which receptors :
a) Serotonin
b) Dopamine
c) Norepinephrine
d) Serotonin & Dopamine
e) Serotonin & Nor epinephrine
127) Which of these medications not to be taken with Levothyroxine ?( Check )
a) Ferrous gluconate
b) Omeprazole
c) Phenytoin
d) Carbamazepine
128) Vitamin E after Oxidation in lipid bi layer, returns to its reduced form by the
action of :
a) Vitamin A
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b) Vitamin B12
c) Vitamin C
d) Vitamin K
e) Vitamin D
129) Vitamins are :
a) Organic substances that.....
b) Inorganic substances that must be taken daily to act in biological functions
c) Inorganic substances that act as a cofactor in the enzymatic reactions
130) Dysphasia is impaired in:
a) Speech
b) Taste
c) Dyspepsia
d) Smell
131) A patient taking Warfarin, u should monitor :
a) Appt
b) INR
c) Bp
d) Heart rate
e) Vitamin K Conc.
132) What is true about Troponin?
a) Used to diagnose Cardiac infarction diseases
b) Found in Cardiac and smooth muscles
c) Used to detect hepatic diseases
d) Used to evaluate the renal function
133) What is true about Nicotine Replacement Therapy?
a) It should be used for 8-12 weeks
b) Attending behavioural courses may help the patient
c) If the Nicotine dose increased the patient will suffer from headache
d) If there is an itching happened during usage of patches patient can't use gum
134) While using Isotretonin , we should monitor :
a) Haemoglobin & Lipid level
b) Lipid & Liver
c) Kidney
135) A Rx contains Sodium Bisulfite which is used as :
a) Anti-Oxidant
b) Lubricant
c) Humectants
d) Solubilising Agent
e) Preservative
136) To increase the solubility of organic salt and protein by increasing the ion
strength this is called :
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a) Salting In
b) Salting Out
c) Co Solvency
137) Which of the following can be used to prevent DVT in a pregnant woman?
a) Vitamin K antagonist therapy
b) Dalteparin
c) Heparin then Warfarin
d) Warfarin
e) Fondaparinux
138) What is meant by Functional food ?( Check )
a) Cereals contain multivitamins
b) Jelly contain mineral oil
c) Tabs or caps for vitamins and mineral oil
139) Which of the following can be used in treatment of B. fargilis Infection?
a) Metronidazole
b) Clarithromycin
c) Tetracycline
d) Ketoconazole
140) Staph. Aureus can be found in colonies in chronic infection of 🙁 Check )
a) Ear
b) Eye
c) Nose
d) Fingernail
e) Sore
141) Rhabdomyolysis is accompanied by :
a) Liver Failure
b) Kidney Failure
c) Heart Failure
d) Pulmonary Failure
142) A mother of a 3 years old baby came to the pharmacy with a prescription
of Amoxicillin to treat otitis media for her baby but you notice that the date of the
prescription was 3 days later, what is the appropriate action you have to follow?
a) Refuse to dispense the prescription as it's useless to treat the baby
b) Call the Physician and discus with him the case
c) Fill the prescription as the 3 days period was watching period for the case
143) Drug of choice for the treatment of meningitis in adult is :
a) Ceftriaxone
b) Cefixime
c) Cephalexin
d) Cefuroxime
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144) The first line treatment for Pain in Osteoarthritis is:
a) Morphine
b) Ibuprofen
c) Acetaminophen
d) Indomethacin
e) Celecoxib
145) What is true about Codon :
a) Present in tRNA
b) Consists of 3 nucleotide bases that express 1 amino acid
c) It's a segment of DNA express genes
146) SNP Means :
a) Single Non-Polymorphism
b) Change in one base in DNA
147) RT-PCR is differs from PCR in :
a) It needs high temperature
b) It needs low temperature
c) Restricted in RNA
d) Reverse Transcriptase in cDNA
148) The process in which DNA is converted to mRNA is called
a) Translation
b) Transcription
c) Reverse Transcription
d) Denaturation
149) The following is contraindicated with celecoxib:
a) dyspepsia
b) sulfa allergy
c) prostatic hyperplasia
d) renal impairment
e) acetaminophen concurrent use
150) In the Northern Hemisphere the most suitable period to take flu vaccine is :
a) Mid September till Mid December
b) Mid September till Mid October
c) Mid October till Mid December
d) Mid November till Mid January
e) Mid November till Mid April
151) In case of Heparin overdose, what is the correct antidote?
a) Protamine Sulfate
b) Vitamin K
c) Warfarin
d) Na bicarbonate
e) Atropine
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152) Tadalafil is different from Sildenafil because:
a) sildenafil is longer acting
b) Tadalafil is shorter acting
c) Tadalafil can be used safely with nitroglycerin
d) Tadalafil and Sildenafil are both equally active and have the same duration
e) Tadalifil is much longer acting than Sildenafil
153) The Steady-State Concentration is a factor of :
a) AUC
b) Half life
c) Plasma Protein binding
d) Dose
154) By dividing the amount of the drug in the body by the concentration of the
drug in the plasma , we will get :
a) Volume of Distribution
b) Clearance Rate
c) Rate of Infusion
d) Steady-State Concentration
155) What is the clearance rate for a product with T1/2 = 3 hours & volume of
distribution is 9 L?
a) 2 L / Hr
b) 2 ml / Hr
c) 2 L / Min
d) 2 ml / min
156) What does ISMP Stand for?
a) Institute of Safe Medication Practice
157) What the most symbol take the pharmacist attention in RX:
a) I.U
b) PRN
c) mg
d) Kg
158) Rx
Substance X
Hydrocortisone 1 % AA 25 mg
Mitte 50 mg
What does AA refer to?
a) Equal amount of each
b) Acceptable amount up to
c) Appropriate amount up to
159) 250 mg of Substance X 50 % needed to be diluted to be 10 %, how many
mg diluents should be added?
a) 1000 mg
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b) 1250 mg
c) 750 mg
160) Which of the following preparation must be completely sterilized?
a) Total Parenteral Nutrition
b) Oral Suspension
c) Nasal preparation
d) Rectal Suppository
161) How many mill equivalent of CaCl2 is found in 1000 mg (Ca atomic weight
40)?
a) 25
b) 50
c) 100
162) A product with T1/2 = 2 hr. was given as 250 mg every 12 hr. , we notice
that that product is not accumulated in the body because of :
a) Rapid Excretion
b) High Volume of distribution
c) Low plasma protein binding
d) Short T1/2 in compared to dose interval
163) Lung thrombus is mainly due to:
a) Fibrin
b) Platelets
c) C protein
d) RBCs
e) WBCs
164) Thalidomide used to treat :
a) Multiple hereditary exostosis
b) Multiple endocrine neoplasia
c) Multiple system atrophy
d) Multiple sclerosis
e) Multiple myeloma
165) Mycophenolate mofetil is an :
a) Antifungal
b) Antihelminthics
c) Anti Arrhythmia
d) Immunosuppressant
166) If Product A is shown to has AUC of 50 When given as a dose of 50 mg
orally , While Product B has AUC of 90 when given as a dose of 100 mg orally ,
what is the relative bioavailability of product B to Product A ?
a) 0.9
b) 1.1
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c) 1
167) If Product A is given as a dose of 150 mg shows AUC of 50 with C max 50
mg & T max 1hr. & Product B is given as a dose of 300 mg shows AUC of 50 with C
max 50 mg & T max 6hr.
What is true about Product B?
a) Sustained Release
b) Has high extensive pass metabolism
c) Has high clearance rate
168) It was found that when we increase the dose of a product , the rate of
elimination doesn't affect ,So that product obey :
a) Zero Order
b) First Order
c) Second Order
169) In a clinical trial the absolute risk reduction was 5 % Then what will
number needed to treat :
a) 2
b) 20
c) 200
d) 10
e) 100
170) All of the following are enzyme inducer Except :
a) Valproic Acid
b) Rifampin
c) Phenobarbital
d) Phenytoin
e) Carbamazepine
171) What is the relation of Codeine to Morphine?
a) Codeine is a pro-drug of Morphine
b) They are functional isomers
c) They are structural isomers
172) All the following drugs decrease the effects of oral contraceptives, Except :
a) Rifampicin
b) Carbamazepine
c) Tetracycline
d) Phenytoin
e) Ibuprofen
173) Warfarin acts in :
a) Liver
b) Kidney
c) Heart
d) Blood
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174) Which of the following medication may cause erectile dysfunction?
a) Corticosteroid
b) α Adrenergic Blocker
c) Opioid
d) ACE Inhibitors
175) Which of the following medication is used in Congestive Heart Failure and
increase the survival rate?
a) Enalapril
b) Digoxin
c) Dobutamine
(N.B: No Beta Blockers among the choices)
176) Class I ant arrhythmic products act by blocking :
a) Na Channels
b) Ca Channels
c) Potassium Channels
d) Beta Receptors
177) What is true about Clopidogrel?
a) It acts by inhibition of Cox-II
b) It acts by inhibition of TXA2
c) It acts by antagonise ADP on its receptors
178) Patient takes aged cheese and was treated with MAO-I , he had a
hypertensive crisis because of :
a) Tyramine
b) Serotonin
c) Histamine
179) Which of the following medication may cause serotonergic syndrome if
taken with MAO-I :
a) Dextromethorphan
b) Pseudoephedrine
c) phenylephrine
180) Typical antipsychotics act on :
a) Dopamine
b) Serotonin
c) Acetylcholine
d) Norepinephrine
181) Which structure can be formed from ephedrine and pseudoephedrine?
a) Amphetamine
b) Codeine
c) Morphine
d) Niacin
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182) Acetyl Salicylic acid gets metabolized into salicylic acid by:
a) Salicylase
b) Esterase
c) Amidase
d) Acetyltransferase
e) Carboxylase
183) Which is used as local anesthetic for hemorrhoids?
a) Lanolin
b) Witch Hazel
c) Zinc Oxide
d) Hydrocortisone
e) Pramoxine
184) You take Fluticasone inhaler and also take Salbutamol inhaler. What
instructions must your pharmacist tell you regarding these two medications?
a) Take Fluticasone, then Salbutamol then rinse.
b) Take Salbutamol, then Fluticasone then rinse.
c) Take Salbutamol, rinse, and then Fluticasone.
d) Take Fluticasone, then rinse then take Salbutamol
e) Take Salbutamol, then Fluticasone.
185) Why do we take protein at IV Injection? ( Check )
a) Cause it binds faster with the plasma protein
b) To avoid first pass effect
c) To get a controlled serum concentration
186) Methylation occurs by the aid of:
a) S-adenosine methionine
b) Glutamyl Transferase
c) Monoamine Oxidase
d) Esterase
187) Which vitamin is found only in animal-derived foods?
a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin B1
c) Vitamin B12
d) Vitamin D
e) Vitamin K
188) Which enzyme is responsible for the metabolism of sildenafil?
a) CYP1A2
b) CYP2C9
c) CYP2D6
d) CYP3A4
e) CYP3A5
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189) Process which works by removing the small impurities from plasma across
a semi-permeable membrane is termed:
a) Dialysis
b) Osmoses
c) Concentration Gradient
d) Dispersion
e) Diffusion
190) Photo toxicity of a medication appears in the form of :
a) Urticaria
b) Allergy
c) The skin response resembles an exaggerated sunburn
191) Amorphous form differs from crystalline form as it is :
a) Crystalline Is generally less soluble than amorphous
b) Amorphous is more soluble than Crystalline
c) Amorphous is more susceptible to polymorphism
d) Amorphous differs in the chemical composition
192) What is true about the critical micelle concentration in emulsion
a) Is defined as surfactant concentration that cause assembly
b) It needs high amount of surfactant when increase lipophilicity
193) Which drugs cause hemorrhagic cystitis:
a) Cyclophosphamide
b) Vincristine
c) 5-Flurouracil
d) Bleomycin
e) Methotrexate
194) When we add a salt to a solvent , which is true :
a) Increase freezing point
b) Increase vapor pressure
c) Increase boiling point
d) Decrease osmotic pressure
195) What is true about aerosol? ( Check )
a) It can be prepared for internal and external usage
b) It contains preservatives
c) The same Concentration will give the same effect as oral form
196) What is meant by lavigation?
197) All of the following instruments need caution during handling Except :
a) Spatula
b) Syringe
c) Needle
198) What is true about Coated Tablets?
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I. To protect from gastric PH
II. To mask the taste
III. To Protect it from moisture in the atmosphere
a) I Only
b) III Only
c) I & II Only
d) II & III Only
e) All answers
199) To test for a pharmaceutical’s ability to withstand abrasion we do :
a) Friability Test
b) Thickness Test
c) Hardness Test
d) Dissolution Test
e) Disintegration Test
200) Chromatography for heat labile substances, all Except :
a) Thin Layer Chromatography
b) High Performance Liquid Chromatography
c) Reverse Phase Chromatography
d) Gas Chromatography
e) Paper Chromatography
201) Polysorbate 80 acts as :
a) Surfactant
b) Preservative
c) Humectants
d) Suspending agent
e) Lubricant
202) What is true about eutectic mixture?
a) Degrade at room temperature
b) Segregates upon storing
c) Liquefies at room temperature
d) Cause Effervescent
e) Absorb moisture from the atmosphere
203) What is the role of surfactant in suppositories? ( Check )
a) Increase water content
b) Increase contact of suppository with the surround
c) Enhance the melting of the suppository
204) Sedimentation rate is determined by:
a) Stoke's Law
b) Fick's Law
c) Noyes Whitney Law
205) Which of the following medication is used to treat non-complicated diaper
rash?
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a) Zinc Oxide Cream
b) Hydrocortisone 1 %
c) Acetyl Salicylic acid
d) Nystatin
206) What is true about Elixirs?
a) It's a sweated hydro alcoholic solution
b) It's for external use only
207) What ethics means "prevent harm"?
a) Beneficence
b) Non-malfeasance
c) Justice
d) Autonomy
e) Veracity
208) If you waive the co payment for one of your client because he is a regular
customer to you and you didn't do that with other customers , So you violate :
a) Beneficence
b) Non-malfeasance
c) Justice
d) Autonomy
e) Veracity
209) Canada's health act includes all the following except:
a) Universality
b) Portability
c) Public Admission
d) Accessibility
e) Speciality
210) If you would like to search for more information regarding Fentanyl
regulation , you'll find it in :
a) Schedule H in FDA
b) Schedule I in NAPRA
c) CDSA Schedules
211) Where can you find information's about medication outside Canada?
a) Martindale
b) CPS
c) AHFS
d) Therapeutic Choices
e) Patient Self Care
212) Where can you find the monograph of a drug in Canada?
a) Compendium of patient self care products
b) Therapeutic choice for Minor Aliments
c) Canada drug database
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(N.B: No CPS among the choices)
213) Who publish CARN (Canadian Adverse Reaction Newsletter)?
a) Med effect ( Health Canada )
214) Which of the following drugs you cannot advertise by a banner on the
counter:
a) A new herbal drug
b) A new supplement
c) A new OTC
d) A new anti arrhythmic prescription drug
215) The most expensive Burden on Canada’s health insurance:
a) Dental
b) Outpatient medication
c) Physician fees
d) Hospitalization
216) A pharmacist want to increase his pharmacy sales , he can do all Except :
a) Make discount for prescription came from local physician
b) Make arrangement with nurse to make regular blood glucose monitor
217) A pharmacist want to make an offer for patients who don't cover with
province insurance , So he makes it under the name of discount , he did 10 cases
during a month , when he calculate it he found that :
a) Increase net profit
b) Decrease net profit
218) The key symptom of nephrosis:
a) glucose in urine
b) protein in urine
c) Stone in kidney
d) Increase in urination frequency
e) minerals in urine
219) Increase the risk of bleeding may occur when combining clarithromycin
with :
a) Aspirin
b) Clopidogrel
c) Dipyridamole
d) Warfarin
e) Heparin
220) Carbohydrates stored in the animal cells in the form of :
a) Glycogen
b) Glucose
c) Lactose
221) Specificity means :
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a) To have negative results with people who don't have the disease
b) To have positive results with people who have the disease
222) Sensitivity means :
a) To have reproducible results
223) The simplest form of modern community pharmacy is 🙁 Check )
a) Sole proprietorship
b) Partnership
c) Incorporations
d) Franchise
224) In an experiment want to know the number of newly prescribed Oxycodone
and refill prescription was undergo under 4 physicians what is the name of the
used test?
a) Chi-Square
b) Wilcoxon
225) A prescription for codeine Give 60, I tab bid 30 days, R = 1. Is this
prescription accepted?
a) No, because refills are not allowed
b) No, because part fill are not allowed
c) Yes, because the total amount is clear
d) Yes, because the amount is easily identifiable
226) Which of the following statement is of the responsibilities of a regular
authorized pharmacy technician?
a) Give a counsel for an OTC medication
b) Give a counsel for a new prescription
c) Receive and document a verbal order from a physician about a refill
prescription
d) Dispense a narcotic prescription
227) Which of the following antibiotic must not refrigerated after
reconstitution?
a) Amoxicillin
b) Clarithromycin
c) Ciprofloxacin
228) A pregnant woman has penicillin allergy and suffers from urinary tract
infection , the most appropriate medication for her case is :
a) Cephalexin
b) Ciprofloxacin
c) Nitrofurantoin
d) Sulfamethoxazole
229) Phenytoin cause :
a) Gingival Hyperplasia
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b) Alopecia
c) Kidney stones
d) Dyskinesia
230) The main screening test for colorectal cancers is :
a) Blood tests
b) Ultrasound scans
c) PPD test
d) Pap smear
e) Fecal occult blood
231) In order to protect protein when freeze drying which should be add:
a) Humectant
b) Protectant
c) Lyoprotectant
232) Polyvinyl alcohol is used in ophthalmic preparations as :
a) Viscosity Enhancer
b) Solubilising agent
c) Preservative
d) Lubricant
233) A person came to the pharmacy asking for Marihuana to treat his
insomnia, what is the most appropriate action?
a) Advise him to make application in special access program in health Canada
b) Tell him it's not allowed to use Marihuana in Canada
c) Tell him that Marihuana is not indicated to treat insomnia and advise him for a
suitable treatment
234) What is meant by profitability?
a) To cover the costs with a little revenue for the owner
235) What is true about phase II trials?
a) Done on animals
b) Done on small healthy human population to test the safety
c) Done on small disease human population to test the efficacy
d) Done on large disease human population to test the efficacy and safety
e) Done while the medication in the real world
236) What is true about phase III trials?
a) Done on animals
b) Done on small healthy human population to test the safety
c) Done on small disease human population to test the efficacy
d) Done on large disease human population to test the efficacy and safety
e) Done while the medication in the real world
237) Which is not a component of pharmacy-economics?
a) International
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b) Payer
c) Hospital
d) Society
238) OU means :
a) Right Eye
b) Left Eye
c) Both Eyes
d) Both Ears
e) Left Ear
239) What is true about Parallax error?
a) Position of eye at all volumetric vessels must be at the same level as
the meniscus
240) Which of the following medications cause QT prolongation?
a) Flouroquinolones
b) Amoxicillin
c) Digoxin
d) Nitrates
241) Dysphonia is an impairment in :
a) Taste
b) Voice
c) Smell
242) When a drug circulating in blood & highly perfuse organs, we name it
a) Central Compartment
b) Peripheral Compartment
c) 2- Compartment
d) Multi Compartment
243) the presence of alternating residues of β-(1, 4) linked N-acetyl
glucosamine and N-acetylmuramic acid is found in:
a) Plasma membrane
b) Cell wall
c) Cytoplasm
d) Mitochondria
244) When you take the Weight, age and diseased state of patients, this is
comparing?
a) Statistical variable
b) Biological variable
c) Collective variable
245) In your pharmacy a technician made a mistake and gave a wrong
medication to the patient, when you notice that mistake you called the patient
and you knew that he didn't take his dose, what is the next step?
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a) Report the case
b) Exchange the medication
246) In an ointment preparation containing water-removable bases,
polyethylene glycol is often added as a (n):
a) Humectant
b) Stabilizer
c) Antioxidant
d) Preservative
e) Surfactant
247) The cost of a product is 2.00 $ and you sell it for a price of 2.50 $. Which is
true?
a) Margin percent is 20%
b) Mark up of cost is 20%
248) A pharmacist decreased the expenses of his pharmacy by $ 36,000 in
compared to the last year , while achieving the same sales, what will be the
percent of increasing his net profit if you know that :
Sales = $ 3,000,000
Costs = $ 2,400,000
Net profit this year = $ 150,000
a) 6%
b) 8%
c) 10%
d) 20%
e) 25%
249) Bisphosphonate mechanism of action:
a) Inhibit osteoclast resorption
b) Inhibit osteoblast resorption
c) Decrease Ca execration
d) Increase Ca absorption
250) Which of the following is a humanistic outcome:
a) decrease patient visits to physician
b) Patient satisfaction
c) Decrease in the Blood pressure of the patient
d) Decrease in Blood Glucose level of the patient
251) What is the minimum quantity that can be weight on a balance with
sensitivity requirements of 15 mg of a 5 % error is permissible?
a) 300 mg
b) 600 mg
c) 900 mg
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252) In a hospital pharmacy, a patient suffers from side effects of a medication
and you found that the nurse gave him a wrong dose of his medication, what is
the most appropriate action?
a) Try to cover her mistake
b) Report the mistake to the physician
c) Call one of patient care to report the mistake
d) Don't deal with this nurse again
253) In research cost $ 100,000 cause increase in patient life by 0.5 year, so
what is the true to express the Cost-Effectiveness analysis of that research?
( Check )
a) $ 100,000 / QALY
b) $ 200,000 / LGY (Life Gained per Year )
c) $ 50,000 / QALY
d) $50,000 / LGY
254) Counselling for patient taking VIMOVO (naproxen + esomeprazol)
a) Drink a lot fluids
b) Don’t take antacid while take vimovo
c) Take vimovo at least 30 minutes after meal
d) Take vimovo at least 30 minutes before meal
e) Vimono should be taken with milk
255) All can be done to an ankle injury except?
a) Rest
b) Heat
c) NSAIDS
d) Compress
e) Elevate
256) Which of these treat Alzheimer’s disease?
a) Bromocriptine
b) Benztropine
c) Rivastigmine
d) Nitrosamine
257) Structure of acetylcholine and acts indirectly by
inhibiting?
a) Acetyl cholinesterase
258) Structure of NAPQI and it's a metabolite of :
a) Acetaminophen
259) This is:
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a) Sulfacetamide
b) Acetazolamide
c) Furosemide
d) Hydrochlorothiazide
e) Spironolactone
260) What is the mechanism of action of Orlistat?
a) Inhibit gastric Lipase
261) What is the use of egg-yolk?
a) Emulsifying agent
b) Humectant
c) Suspending agent
d) Lubricant
262) What is the enzyme name that found in viruses that enables them to be
released from the host cell?
a) Neuraminidase
263) Two drugs with equivalent therapeutic effects are best compared by:
a) Cost-Benefit Analysis
b) Cost-Effectiveness Analysis
c) Cost-Minimization Analysis
d) Cost-Utility Analysis
e) Willingness To Pay
264) What is the mechanism of action of Senna as Laxative?
a) Stimulate the bowel wall to contract
b) Allow the stool to pass easier through the bowel
c) Increase the bulk of the stool which stimulate peristalsis
265) Misoprostol is an example of :
a) Eicosanoids
266) What is the most appropriate advice to a patient will start Levothyroxin?
( Check )
a) Talk it in the morning to avoid insomnia
b) Feeling palpitation is an indicator of overdose
267) The process by which the virus transfer DNA from one bacteria to another
is called :
a) Transduction
b) Translation
c) Transformation
d) Transportation
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268) When a pharmaceutical company starts a research for a new medication, it
has to protect her rights by making registration for :
a) Logo
b) Copy Right
c) Trade Name
d) Patency
e) Brand Name
269) What is true about Crohn's disease?
a) inflammatory bowel disease that may affect any part of the gastrointestinal
tract from mouth to anus
270) A taxi driver came to you with a prescription of sumatriptan for his
migraine and you know that it may cause dizziness, what is the most appropriate
action to be done?
a) Call the physician to explain to him your fears from side effect of the
medication
b) Refuse to dispense the prescription
c) Dispense the medication and give the patient a verbal counsel about the side
effect of the medication
d) Dispense the medication and give the patient a printed copy of the side effect
of the medication
271) Rx for a medication as follow :
Start 7.5 mg then 2.5mg BID for 14 days
Calculate the dispensed amount?
a) 77.5 mg
b) 72.5 mg
c) 75 mg
272) A product with T1/2 One year, Concentration 400 mg what will be the
concentration after 3 years?
a) 50 mg
b) 100 mg
c) 150 mg
273) A patient who is 3 years old experiencing sore throat. His Dr. prescribed for
him :
Rx
Zithromax 200 mg
1QD for 5 Days
In your pharmacy you have 2 bottles of azithromycin suspension 600 mg
(200mg/5ml) & 900 mg (200mg/5ml). What is the best bottle to be dispensed to
fill this prescription?
a) One Bottle of azithromycin 600 mg ( 200mg/5ml )
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b) One Bottle of azithromycin 900 mg ( 200mg/5ml )
c) Two Bottles of azithromycin 600 mg ( 200mg/5ml )
d) Two Bottles of azithromycin 900 mg ( 200mg/5ml )
e) One Bottle of azithromycin 600 mg ( 200mg/5ml ) & One Bottle of azithromycin
900 mg ( 200mg/5ml )
274) Differential diagnosis of Rosacea from Acne vulgarise is
a) Erythema
b) Telangiectasia
c) Papules
d) Comedones
e) Seborrhea.
275) Buccal Route is characterized by:
a) No membrane barrier
b) Less metabolic activity
c) For high dose drugs